πΊπΈ American Registry of Radiologic Technologists Certification (ARRT) Β· subject
American Registry of Radiologic Technologists Certification (ARRT) Patient Care and Safety Syllabus
The Patient Care and Safety syllabus for American Registry of Radiologic Technologists Certification (ARRT) in full: 5 chapters, 22 topics and 30 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Patient Care and Safety flashcards with answers.
Patient Care and Safety syllabus: all 5 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Patient Interaction and Management
5 topics- Professional communication and patient assessment
- Verbal and nonverbal communication techniques
- Communicating with pediatric, geriatric, and impaired patients
- Cultural competence and language barriers
- Patient history and chart review
- Obtaining relevant clinical history
- Reviewing prior imaging and physician orders
- Documentation and informed consent
- Patient education and procedure explanation
- Body mechanics and patient transfer
- Safe lifting and moving techniques
- Wheelchair and stretcher transfers
- Assisting the immobile patient
- Patient positioning aids and immobilization devices
- Professional communication and patient assessment
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Vital Signs and Patient Monitoring
4 topics- Measuring and interpreting vital signs
- Blood pressure, pulse, and respiration
- Temperature and oxygen saturation
- Normal ranges and abnormal findings
- Monitoring equipment
- Pulse oximeters and ECG monitors
- Oxygen delivery systems
- Recognizing patient distress and physiological changes
- Pediatric and geriatric monitoring considerations
- Measuring and interpreting vital signs
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Medical Emergencies and Response
4 topics- Recognition of common medical emergencies
- Cardiac and respiratory arrest
- Shock, syncope, and seizures
- Diabetic and allergic reactions
- Basic life support and CPR principles
- Crash cart contents and emergency equipment
- Role of the technologist during a code
- Recognition of common medical emergencies
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Infection Control and Aseptic Technique
4 topics- Cycle of infection and modes of transmission
- Direct and indirect transmission
- Airborne, droplet, and contact precautions
- Standard and transmission-based precautions
- Medical and surgical asepsis
- Hand hygiene and PPE
- Sterile field maintenance
- Disinfection and sterilization methods
- Isolation procedures and healthcare-associated infections
- Cycle of infection and modes of transmission
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Pharmacology and Contrast Media
5 topics- Contrast media types and properties
- Iodinated ionic and nonionic agents
- Barium sulfate preparations
- Osmolality and viscosity
- Routes of medication and contrast administration
- Oral, rectal, and intravenous routes
- Venipuncture technique and site selection
- Contrast reactions and management
- Mild, moderate, and severe reactions
- Contraindications and patient screening
- Renal function and contrast-induced nephropathy
- Drug categories used in imaging
- Dose calculation and documentation
- Contrast media types and properties
American Registry of Radiologic Technologists Certification (ARRT) Patient Care and Safety flashcards β 51 questions with answers
What are the four elements of effective therapeutic communication a radiologic technologist should use with patients?
Verbal clarity, nonverbal cues (eye contact, posture, facial expression), active listening, and empathy/respect for the patient's dignity and privacy.
What does the acronym SOAP stand for when reviewing or documenting in a patient's chart?
Subjective (patient-reported), Objective (measurable findings), Assessment (clinical impression), and Plan (treatment/next steps).
Before an imaging exam, what key items should the technologist verify during patient history and chart review?
Correct patient identity (two identifiers), the ordered exam, pertinent clinical history, allergies, pregnancy status, renal function/labs for contrast, and informed consent when required.
What are the two patient identifiers required by The Joint Commission before any procedure?
Two of: full name, date of birth, or medical record number β never the room number or physical location.
When explaining a procedure to a patient (patient education), what should the technologist communicate?
What the exam involves, approximate duration, sensations they may feel, breathing/positioning instructions, any prep, and answers to questions β using plain, non-technical language.
What are the principles of proper body mechanics when lifting or moving a patient?
Keep a wide base of support, bend at the knees/hips (not the waist), keep the load close to your body, use the strong leg muscles, keep the back straight, and avoid twisting.
What type of patient transfer is used for a patient who can bear weight and cooperate, versus one who cannot?
A cooperative weight-bearing patient uses an assisted standing/pivot transfer; a non-weight-bearing or unconscious patient requires a draw-sheet/slide-board or mechanical (Hoyer) lift transfer.
What is the purpose of patient positioning aids and immobilization devices in radiography?
To maintain the correct position, reduce voluntary and involuntary motion, improve image quality, ensure patient safety/comfort, and minimize repeat exposures.
Name common immobilization devices used for pediatric imaging.
The Pigg-O-Stat, sandbags, tape, sponges/foam positioning blocks, Velcro straps/compression bands, and stockinette wraps.
What are the normal adult ranges for the four primary vital signs (T, P, R, BP)?
Temperature ~98.6Β°F (37Β°C); Pulse 60β100 bpm; Respiration 12β20 breaths/min; Blood pressure ~120/80 mmHg.
What is the normal adult oxygen saturation (SpO2) range measured by pulse oximetry?
95β100%; values below ~90% indicate hypoxemia requiring intervention.
Define systolic and diastolic blood pressure.
Systolic is the pressure in the arteries during ventricular contraction (top number); diastolic is the pressure during ventricular relaxation/filling (bottom number).
What pulse points are most commonly used to assess heart rate?
Radial (wrist) and carotid (neck) for adults; the apical and brachial pulses are common in infants/children.
What does an electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG) monitor measure?
The electrical activity of the heart, showing rate and rhythm; the normal pattern is normal sinus rhythm (P-QRS-T).
What is the purpose of a pulse oximeter and where is the probe placed?
It noninvasively measures arterial oxygen saturation (SpO2) and pulse rate, with the probe placed on a fingertip, toe, or earlobe.
List common early signs that a patient is in distress during an imaging exam.
Pallor or cyanosis, diaphoresis (sweating), nausea, dizziness, changes in breathing, restlessness/confusion, complaints of chest pain, and altered consciousness.
What are the classic clinical signs of shock?
Hypotension, tachycardia, rapid shallow breathing, cool/clammy pale skin, weak pulse, confusion, and decreased urine output.
What special vital-sign considerations apply to pediatric patients?
Infants/children have faster pulse and respiratory rates and lower blood pressure than adults; rates decrease and BP increases with age, so age-specific normal ranges must be used.
What monitoring considerations are important for geriatric patients?
Increased risk of falls, fragile skin, hypothermia, orthostatic hypotension, impaired hearing/vision, slower responses, and comorbidities β requiring extra fall precautions and clear communication.
What are the signs and immediate response to a patient having a syncopal (fainting) episode?
Signs: dizziness, pallor, diaphoresis, loss of consciousness. Response: lower the patient safely, place supine with legs elevated, ensure airway, monitor vitals, and call for help.
Show the other 31 Patient Care and Safety flashcards
What are the warning signs of a stroke (CVA) using the acronym FAST?
Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call emergency services β also sudden confusion, vision loss, severe headache, and loss of balance.
What are the classic symptoms of a myocardial infarction (heart attack)?
Crushing substernal chest pain that may radiate to the left arm/jaw, shortness of breath, diaphoresis, nausea, and anxiety/feeling of impending doom.
What is the correct response if a patient has a seizure during an exam?
Protect the patient from injury, do not restrain or put anything in the mouth, lower them to the floor/turn on the side after, maintain airway, time the seizure, and call for help.
What is the recommended adult CPR compression rate and depth per current BLS guidelines?
Compress at 100β120 compressions per minute, at least 2 inches (5 cm) deep, allowing full chest recoil between compressions.
What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for one-rescuer adult CPR?
30 compressions to 2 breaths (30:2).
What does the BLS survival 'Chain of Survival' emphasize first for an unresponsive adult?
Recognition and activation of emergency response, immediate high-quality CPR, rapid defibrillation (AED), advanced care, and post-cardiac-arrest care.
What is the function of an AED (automated external defibrillator)?
It analyzes the heart rhythm and delivers an electrical shock to defibrillate shockable rhythms (ventricular fibrillation/pulseless ventricular tachycardia).
List the typical contents of a crash (code) cart.
Emergency medications (epinephrine, atropine, etc.), defibrillator/AED, airway/intubation supplies (Ambu bag, oral airways, ET tubes), oxygen, suction, IV supplies, and a backboard.
What is the role of the radiologic technologist during a code (cardiac arrest)?
Call/activate the code, bring the crash cart, place a backboard under the patient, assist with CPR or move equipment, provide a clear area, and document times/events as directed.
Why is a backboard placed under a patient during CPR?
A firm flat surface under the patient ensures chest compressions are effective by preventing the soft mattress from absorbing the force.
What are the six links in the chain (cycle) of infection?
Infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host.
What are the four main modes of disease transmission?
Contact (direct/indirect), droplet, airborne, and vehicle/vector (and common-vehicle such as food, water, blood).
What is the single most effective method to break the chain of infection?
Proper hand hygiene (handwashing or alcohol-based hand sanitizer).
Differentiate medical asepsis from surgical asepsis.
Medical asepsis (clean technique) reduces the number and spread of microorganisms; surgical asepsis (sterile technique) eliminates all microorganisms and spores from an object or area.
What are Standard Precautions?
Infection-control measures applied to ALL patients regardless of diagnosis β treating all blood, body fluids, secretions, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes as potentially infectious (hand hygiene, gloves, PPE).
What are the three categories of transmission-based precautions and an example disease for each?
Contact (e.g., MRSA, C. difficile), Droplet (e.g., influenza, meningitis), and Airborne (e.g., tuberculosis, measles, varicella).
What type of isolation room and PPE is required for airborne precautions?
A negative-pressure (AIIR) room and an N95 respirator (fit-tested), plus standard PPE as needed.
What is a healthcare-associated infection (HAI / nosocomial infection)?
An infection acquired by a patient during the course of receiving treatment in a healthcare facility that was not present or incubating on admission.
In what order is PPE donned (put on) and doffed (removed)?
Don: gown, mask/respirator, goggles, gloves. Doff: gloves, goggles, gown, mask/respirator β followed by hand hygiene.
What are the two main classes of iodinated contrast media and how do they differ?
Ionic (high osmolality, dissociate into ions, higher reaction risk) and nonionic (low osmolality, do not dissociate, fewer adverse reactions and now preferred).
What property of contrast media makes it visible (radiopaque) on x-ray images?
High atomic number elements β iodine (Z=53) and barium (Z=56) β increase x-ray attenuation/absorption, producing positive (radiopaque) contrast.
When is barium sulfate contraindicated, and what is used instead?
Barium is contraindicated when bowel perforation or rupture is suspected (it causes peritonitis); a water-soluble iodinated agent (e.g., Gastrografin) is used instead.
What is osmolality and why does it matter for contrast media?
Osmolality is the concentration of dissolved particles in solution; lower-osmolality contrast is closer to blood and causes fewer adverse reactions, so low-osmolar/nonionic agents are preferred.
List the common routes of medication and contrast administration.
Oral (PO), rectal (PR), intravenous (IV), intramuscular (IM), subcutaneous (SC), intrathecal, intra-arterial, and topical/inhalation.
Why is the intravenous (IV) route used for most contrast injections in imaging?
It provides immediate, complete (100%) bioavailability and rapid distribution for time-sensitive enhancement during imaging.
Classify the severity levels of contrast media reactions with an example of each.
Mild (nausea, warmth, hives β self-limiting), Moderate (vasovagal, bronchospasm, marked urticaria β needs treatment), and Severe/anaphylactoid (laryngeal edema, cardiac arrest, hypotensive shock β life-threatening).
What is the first-line emergency drug for a severe anaphylactic contrast reaction?
Epinephrine (adrenaline).
What is contrast-induced nephropathy and which lab value is checked to assess risk?
Acute kidney injury caused by iodinated contrast; renal function is assessed using serum creatinine and the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR)/BUN.
Name common drug categories used in medical imaging and their purpose.
Contrast agents (visualization), analgesics (pain), sedatives/anxiolytics (relaxation/sedation), antihistamines/corticosteroids (allergy prophylaxis), antiemetics (nausea), and emergency drugs (epinephrine, atropine).
What is the basic dosage calculation formula used to determine the volume of medication to administer?
Volume = (Desired dose / Dose on hand) Γ Quantity on hand β i.e., (D/H) Γ V.
What 'rights' of medication administration must be verified and documented for every drug given?
The right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, and right documentation (including patient response and any reaction).
American Registry of Radiologic Technologists Certification (ARRT) Patient Care and Safety FAQ
What is in the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists Certification (ARRT) Patient Care and Safety syllabus?
American Registry of Radiologic Technologists Certification (ARRT) Patient Care and Safety is split into 5 chapters: Patient Interaction and Management, Vital Signs and Patient Monitoring, Medical Emergencies and Response, Infection Control and Aseptic Technique and Pharmacology and Contrast Media. Together they contain 22 topics and 30 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in American Registry of Radiologic Technologists Certification (ARRT) Patient Care and Safety?
5 chapters, containing 22 topics and 30 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Patient Interaction and Management, with 5 topics.
Are there flashcards for American Registry of Radiologic Technologists Certification (ARRT) Patient Care and Safety?
Yes β a 51-card Patient Care and Safety deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.