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Allied Health Sciences Entry Test Chemistry Syllabus

The Chemistry syllabus for Allied Health Sciences Entry Test in full: 12 chapters and 45 topics, every one listed below, plus 66 Chemistry flashcards with answers.

12Chapters
45Topics
66Flashcards

Chemistry syllabus: all 12 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Basic Concepts of Chemistry

    4 topics
    • Atomic Mass and Mole Concept
    • Empirical and Molecular Formula
    • Stoichiometry
    • Limiting Reactant and Yield
  2. Experimental Techniques in Chemistry

    3 topics
    • Filtration and Crystallization
    • Sublimation and Solvent Extraction
    • Chromatography
  3. Gases

    4 topics
    • Gas Laws
    • Ideal Gas Equation
    • Kinetic Molecular Theory
    • Deviation of Real Gases
  4. Liquids and Solids

    3 topics
    • Intermolecular Forces
    • Properties of Liquids
    • Types of Solids and Crystal Lattice
  5. Atomic Structure

    4 topics
    • Subatomic Particles
    • Bohr's Atomic Model
    • Quantum Numbers and Orbitals
    • Electronic Configuration
  6. Chemical Bonding

    4 topics
    • Ionic and Covalent Bonding
    • Hybridization
    • VSEPR Theory and Molecular Geometry
    • Bond Energy and Polarity
  7. Thermochemistry and Energetics

    3 topics
    • Enthalpy and Heat of Reaction
    • Hess's Law
    • Born-Haber Cycle
  8. Chemical Equilibrium

    4 topics
    • Law of Mass Action
    • Le Chatelier's Principle
    • Ionic Equilibrium and pH
    • Solubility Product
  9. Solutions and Electrochemistry

    4 topics
    • Concentration Units
    • Colligative Properties
    • Oxidation-Reduction Reactions
    • Electrochemical Cells
  10. Reaction Kinetics

    3 topics
    • Rate of Reaction
    • Order of Reaction
    • Factors Affecting Rate and Catalysis
  11. Periodicity and the s- and p-Block

    4 topics
    • Periodic Classification and Periodicity
    • s-Block Elements
    • p-Block Elements (Groups III-A to VI-A)
    • Transition (d-Block) Elements
  12. Organic Chemistry and Biochemistry

    5 topics
    • Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry
    • Hydrocarbons
    • Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
    • Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
    • Macromolecules and Biochemistry

Allied Health Sciences Entry Test Chemistry flashcards — 66 questions with answers

  1. Define one mole and state Avogadro's number.

    One mole is the amount of substance containing as many elementary entities as there are atoms in 12 g of carbon-12. Avogadro's number = 6.022 x 10^23 particles per mole.

  2. How is the average atomic mass of an element calculated from its isotopes?

    Average atomic mass = sum of (fractional abundance x isotopic mass) for all isotopes. It is a weighted average of the masses of all naturally occurring isotopes.

  3. Write the formula relating number of moles to mass and molar mass.

    Number of moles (n) = given mass (m) / molar mass (M).

  4. How do you find the number of particles given the number of moles?

    Number of particles = number of moles x Avogadro's number (6.022 x 10^23).

  5. What is the molar volume of an ideal gas at STP?

    22.414 dm^3 (litres) per mole at STP (0 degrees C / 273.15 K and 1 atm).

  6. Distinguish between empirical formula and molecular formula.

    Empirical formula gives the simplest whole-number ratio of atoms of each element; molecular formula gives the actual number of atoms of each element in a molecule. Molecular formula = n x empirical formula.

  7. Outline the steps to determine an empirical formula from percentage composition.

    1) Assume 100 g so percentages become grams. 2) Divide each element's mass by its atomic mass to get moles. 3) Divide all mole values by the smallest. 4) Convert ratios to whole numbers to get the empirical formula.

  8. How is the molecular formula obtained from the empirical formula and molar mass?

    Find n = molar mass / empirical formula mass, then multiply each subscript in the empirical formula by n.

  9. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2 and its molar mass is 42 g/mol. What is its molecular formula?

    Empirical mass of CH2 = 14; n = 42/14 = 3; molecular formula = C3H6.

  10. What is stoichiometry?

    Stoichiometry is the quantitative study of the relationships (mass, moles, volume) between reactants and products in a balanced chemical equation.

  11. What does the coefficient ratio in a balanced equation represent?

    The mole ratio (and for gases, the volume ratio) in which reactants combine and products form.

  12. State the three types of stoichiometric relationships derivable from a balanced equation.

    Mass-mass, mole-mole, and mass-volume (or volume-volume for gases) relationships between reactants and products.

  13. Define limiting reactant.

    The limiting reactant is the reactant that is completely consumed first and therefore determines (limits) the maximum amount of product that can be formed.

  14. How do you identify the limiting reactant in a reaction?

    Convert each reactant's amount to moles, divide by its coefficient in the balanced equation; the reactant with the smallest resulting value is the limiting reactant.

  15. Define theoretical yield, actual yield, and percentage yield.

    Theoretical yield = maximum product calculated from stoichiometry. Actual yield = product actually obtained experimentally. Percentage yield = (actual yield / theoretical yield) x 100.

  16. Why is actual yield usually less than theoretical yield?

    Due to side reactions, incomplete reactions, loss during transfer/purification, reversible reactions, and impure reactants.

  17. What is filtration and what does it separate?

    Filtration separates an insoluble solid (residue) from a liquid (filtrate) by passing the mixture through a porous filter medium such as filter paper.

  18. What is crystallization and on what principle is it based?

    Crystallization is purifying a solid by dissolving it in a hot solvent, then cooling so pure crystals form. It is based on the difference in solubility of a substance at high and low temperatures.

  19. Why must a solution be saturated and hot before crystallization, then cooled slowly?

    A hot saturated solution holds maximum solute; slow cooling reduces solubility gradually, allowing pure, well-formed crystals to separate while impurities stay in the mother liquor.

  20. Define sublimation and give an example of a substance that sublimes.

    Sublimation is the direct conversion of a solid to vapour (and back to solid) without passing through the liquid state. Examples: iodine, naphthalene, ammonium chloride, dry ice (solid CO2).

Show the other 46 Chemistry flashcards
  1. What is solvent extraction and the principle behind it?

    Solvent extraction separates a solute from one solvent using another immiscible solvent in which the solute is more soluble. It is based on the distribution (partition) of a solute between two immiscible liquids.

  2. State the distribution (partition) law.

    At constant temperature, a solute distributes itself between two immiscible solvents so that the ratio of its concentrations in the two solvents is constant: C1/C2 = Kd (distribution coefficient).

  3. What is chromatography and what is it used for?

    Chromatography is a technique to separate, identify, and purify components of a mixture based on their different distribution between a stationary phase and a mobile phase.

  4. Name the stationary and mobile phases in paper chromatography.

    Stationary phase: water held on the cellulose (filter paper). Mobile phase: the solvent (liquid) that moves up the paper.

  5. Define the Rf value in chromatography and give its formula.

    Rf (retention factor) = distance travelled by the solute / distance travelled by the solvent front. It is constant for a substance under fixed conditions and always less than 1.

  6. State Boyle's law and its mathematical expression.

    At constant temperature, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure: P x V = constant, or P1V1 = P2V2.

  7. State Charles's law and its mathematical expression.

    At constant pressure, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is directly proportional to its absolute (Kelvin) temperature: V/T = constant, or V1/T1 = V2/T2.

  8. State Avogadro's law.

    Equal volumes of all gases at the same temperature and pressure contain an equal number of molecules. Volume is directly proportional to the number of moles (V proportional to n).

  9. State Dalton's law of partial pressures.

    The total pressure of a mixture of non-reacting gases equals the sum of the partial pressures of the individual gases: P_total = P1 + P2 + P3 + ...

  10. State Graham's law of diffusion.

    At constant temperature and pressure, the rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its density (or molar mass): rate proportional to 1/sqrt(M).

  11. Write the ideal gas equation and identify each term.

    PV = nRT, where P = pressure, V = volume, n = number of moles, R = universal gas constant, T = absolute temperature (Kelvin).

  12. Give the value of the gas constant R in SI units and in dm^3 atm units.

    R = 8.314 J mol^-1 K^-1 (SI), or 0.0821 dm^3 atm mol^-1 K^-1.

  13. How can molar mass be determined using the ideal gas equation?

    Since n = mass/M, substituting gives PV = (m/M)RT, so M = mRT/(PV). Knowing mass, P, V, and T allows molar mass calculation.

  14. State the main postulates of the kinetic molecular theory of gases.

    Gases consist of tiny particles in constant random motion; their volume is negligible compared to container volume; collisions are perfectly elastic; there are no intermolecular forces; and average kinetic energy is directly proportional to absolute temperature.

  15. According to kinetic molecular theory, what is average kinetic energy proportional to?

    The average kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly proportional to the absolute (Kelvin) temperature.

  16. Under what conditions do real gases deviate most from ideal behaviour?

    At high pressure and low temperature, because molecules are close together so intermolecular forces and the finite molecular volume become significant.

  17. Why does the ideal gas equation fail for real gases?

    It assumes molecules have negligible volume and no intermolecular forces. Real molecules occupy space and attract one another, so these assumptions break down, especially at high pressure and low temperature.

  18. Write the van der Waals equation for real gases.

    (P + an^2/V^2)(V - nb) = nRT, where 'a' corrects for intermolecular attraction and 'b' corrects for the finite volume of molecules.

  19. What is the compressibility factor Z, and what does its value indicate?

    Z = PV/nRT. For an ideal gas Z = 1; Z greater than 1 indicates dominance of repulsive forces/molecular volume, and Z less than 1 indicates dominance of attractive forces.

  20. List the main types of intermolecular forces in order of increasing strength.

    London dispersion forces (weakest) < dipole-dipole forces < hydrogen bonding (strongest of the intermolecular forces).

  21. What are London dispersion forces and in which molecules do they occur?

    Weak attractions arising from temporary (instantaneous) dipoles caused by fluctuating electron clouds. They occur in all molecules but are the only force in nonpolar molecules; they increase with molecular size/polarizability.

  22. What conditions are required for hydrogen bonding?

    Hydrogen must be bonded to a highly electronegative atom (F, O, or N), and a lone pair must be present on the electronegative atom of a neighbouring molecule.

  23. Why does water have an unusually high boiling point compared to H2S?

    Water molecules form strong intermolecular hydrogen bonds (O-H...O), requiring much more energy to separate, whereas H2S has only weak dipole-dipole and dispersion forces.

  24. Define surface tension and explain why it occurs.

    Surface tension is the force acting along the surface of a liquid that tends to minimize its surface area. It arises because surface molecules experience a net inward pull from unbalanced intermolecular attractions.

  25. Define vapour pressure of a liquid and state how it changes with temperature.

    Vapour pressure is the pressure exerted by the vapour in equilibrium with its liquid at a given temperature. It increases as temperature increases.

  26. Define the boiling point of a liquid in terms of vapour pressure.

    The boiling point is the temperature at which the vapour pressure of the liquid becomes equal to the external (atmospheric) pressure.

  27. How does viscosity of a liquid change with temperature, and why?

    Viscosity decreases as temperature increases, because higher kinetic energy overcomes intermolecular attractions, allowing molecules to flow past each other more easily.

  28. Compare the four main types of crystalline solids by their constituent particles and bonding.

    Ionic (ions, electrostatic bonds), Covalent/network (atoms, covalent bonds), Molecular (molecules, intermolecular forces), Metallic (positive ions in a sea of delocalized electrons, metallic bonds).

  29. Distinguish between crystalline and amorphous solids.

    Crystalline solids have a regular, repeating long-range ordered arrangement of particles and sharp melting points; amorphous solids lack long-range order and soften over a range of temperatures (e.g., glass, rubber).

  30. What is a unit cell in a crystal lattice?

    A unit cell is the smallest repeating structural unit of a crystal lattice that, when repeated in three dimensions, generates the entire crystal.

  31. Why do ionic solids have high melting points but are brittle?

    High melting points result from strong electrostatic forces between oppositely charged ions; they are brittle because displacing the lattice brings like charges adjacent, causing repulsion that shatters the crystal.

  32. State the relative charge and mass of the three subatomic particles.

    Proton: charge +1, mass approx 1 amu. Neutron: charge 0, mass approx 1 amu. Electron: charge -1, mass approx 1/1836 amu (negligible).

  33. Define atomic number and mass number.

    Atomic number (Z) = number of protons in the nucleus. Mass number (A) = total number of protons plus neutrons in the nucleus.

  34. What are isotopes?

    Isotopes are atoms of the same element having the same atomic number (protons) but different mass numbers due to different numbers of neutrons.

  35. State the two main postulates of Bohr's atomic model.

    1) Electrons revolve around the nucleus only in fixed circular orbits (stationary states) of definite energy without radiating energy. 2) Energy is absorbed or emitted only when an electron jumps between orbits, equal to the energy difference (E = hf).

  36. According to Bohr, how is the angular momentum of an electron quantized?

    Angular momentum is quantized as mvr = n(h/2pi), where n is a whole number (1, 2, 3...), h is Planck's constant, and r is the orbit radius.

  37. What is emitted when an electron falls from a higher to a lower energy level in Bohr's model?

    A photon (quantum) of radiation is emitted with energy equal to the difference between the two levels: E = E_high - E_low = hf.

  38. List the four quantum numbers and what each describes.

    Principal (n): energy level/shell size. Azimuthal/subsidiary (l): subshell shape. Magnetic (m): orbital orientation in space. Spin (s): direction of electron spin (+1/2 or -1/2).

  39. What are the allowed values of the azimuthal quantum number l, and which subshells do they represent?

    l ranges from 0 to (n-1). l = 0 (s), 1 (p), 2 (d), 3 (f).

  40. What are the possible values of the magnetic quantum number for a given l?

    The magnetic quantum number m takes integer values from -l to +l, including 0, giving (2l + 1) orbitals in that subshell.

  41. How many orbitals and maximum electrons are in s, p, d, and f subshells?

    s: 1 orbital, 2 electrons. p: 3 orbitals, 6 electrons. d: 5 orbitals, 10 electrons. f: 7 orbitals, 14 electrons.

  42. State the Aufbau principle.

    Electrons fill orbitals in order of increasing energy, occupying the lowest-energy available orbital first before filling higher-energy ones.

  43. State Pauli's exclusion principle.

    No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of all four quantum numbers; an orbital holds at most two electrons, which must have opposite spins.

  44. State Hund's rule of maximum multiplicity.

    Electrons occupy degenerate (equal-energy) orbitals singly with parallel spins first, before any orbital is doubly occupied (pairing begins only after each orbital has one electron).

  45. Write the (n+l) rule for determining orbital filling order.

    Orbitals fill in order of increasing (n+l) value; if two orbitals have the same (n+l), the one with the lower n fills first. (e.g., 4s, with n+l=4, fills before 3d, with n+l=5).

  46. Write the ground-state electronic configuration of chromium (Z=24) and explain the anomaly.

    [Ar] 3d^5 4s^1 (not 3d^4 4s^2). A half-filled 3d^5 with 4s^1 gives extra stability due to symmetry and exchange energy.

Allied Health Sciences Entry Test Chemistry FAQ

What is in the Allied Health Sciences Entry Test Chemistry syllabus?

Allied Health Sciences Entry Test Chemistry is split into 12 chapters: Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Experimental Techniques in Chemistry, Gases, Liquids and Solids, Atomic Structure, Chemical Bonding, Thermochemistry and Energetics, Chemical Equilibrium, Solutions and Electrochemistry, Reaction Kinetics, Periodicity and the s- and p-Block and Organic Chemistry and Biochemistry. Together they contain 45 topics.

How many chapters are in Allied Health Sciences Entry Test Chemistry?

12 chapters, containing 45 topics. The largest chapter is Organic Chemistry and Biochemistry, with 5 topics.

Are there flashcards for Allied Health Sciences Entry Test Chemistry?

Yes — a 66-card Chemistry deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.