🇵🇰 Allied Health Sciences Entry Test · subject

Allied Health Sciences Entry Test Biology Syllabus

The Biology syllabus for Allied Health Sciences Entry Test in full: 12 chapters and 50 topics, every one listed below, plus 68 Biology flashcards with answers.

12Chapters
50Topics
68Flashcards

Biology syllabus: all 12 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Introduction to Biology and Biological Method

    3 topics
    • Levels of Biological Organization
    • Branches of Biology
    • Biological Method and Scientific Steps
  2. Biological Molecules

    6 topics
    • Importance of Water
    • Carbohydrates
    • Proteins and Amino Acids
    • Lipids
    • Nucleic Acids (DNA and RNA)
    • Conjugated Molecules
  3. Enzymes

    4 topics
    • Characteristics of Enzymes
    • Mechanism of Enzyme Action
    • Factors Affecting Enzyme Activity
    • Enzyme Inhibition
  4. The Cell

    4 topics
    • Cell Structure and Function
    • Cell Organelles
    • Cell Membrane and Transport
    • Prokaryotic vs Eukaryotic Cells
  5. Variety of Life and Kingdoms

    5 topics
    • Classification and Five Kingdom System
    • Acellular Life (Viruses)
    • Kingdom Prokaryotae (Monera)
    • Kingdom Protista
    • Kingdom Fungi
  6. Bioenergetics

    3 topics
    • Photosynthesis
    • Respiration
    • Role of ATP
  7. Nutrition and Gaseous Exchange

    4 topics
    • Human Digestive System
    • Nutrition in Plants
    • Gaseous Exchange in Plants
    • Respiratory System in Humans
  8. Transport and Homeostasis

    4 topics
    • Transport in Plants
    • Human Circulatory System
    • Osmoregulation and Excretion
    • Urinary System and Kidney
  9. Support, Movement and Coordination

    4 topics
    • Human Skeleton and Joints
    • Muscles and Movement
    • Nervous System
    • Endocrine System and Hormones
  10. Reproduction, Growth and Development

    4 topics
    • Reproduction in Plants
    • Human Reproductive System
    • Embryonic Development
    • Aging
  11. Genetics and Molecular Biology

    5 topics
    • Chromosomes and DNA
    • Cell Cycle, Mitosis and Meiosis
    • Mendelian Inheritance
    • Variation and Genetics
    • Biotechnology and Genetic Engineering
  12. Evolution and Ecology

    4 topics
    • Theories of Evolution
    • Ecosystem Structure and Flow of Energy
    • Major Ecosystems
    • Man and His Environment (Pollution)

Allied Health Sciences Entry Test Biology flashcards — 68 questions with answers

  1. What are the levels of biological organization in correct order from smallest to largest, starting at the subatomic level?

    Subatomic particles -> Atoms -> Molecules -> Organelles -> Cells -> Tissues -> Organs -> Organ systems -> Organism -> Population -> Community -> Ecosystem -> Biome -> Biosphere.

  2. Which level of biological organization is defined as a group of similar cells that perform a specific function?

    A tissue.

  3. What is the difference between a population and a community in ecological organization?

    A population is all individuals of one species in an area; a community is all the different populations (species) interacting in that area.

  4. What is the biosphere?

    The part of the Earth and its atmosphere inhabited by living organisms; the sum of all ecosystems.

  5. Which branch of biology deals with the study of fungi?

    Mycology.

  6. What is the branch of biology concerned with the study of insects?

    Entomology.

  7. Define the branch of biology called histology.

    The study of tissues (microscopic structure of tissues).

  8. What does the branch of biology 'taxonomy' study?

    The identification, naming, and classification of organisms.

  9. Which branch of biology studies the interactions of organisms with one another and their environment?

    Ecology.

  10. List the ordered steps of the biological (scientific) method.

    Observation -> Formulation of a biological problem (question) -> Hypothesis -> Deductions -> Experimentation -> Results/Theory (and possibly Law).

  11. In the biological method, what is a hypothesis?

    A tentative, testable explanation (proposed answer) for an observed biological problem.

  12. What is the difference between a scientific theory and a scientific law?

    A theory is a well-supported explanation of why/how something happens; a law is a uniform/consistent statement of what happens under given conditions, often as a generalization or formula.

  13. In the malaria example of the biological method, who is credited with the work, and what hypothesis was tested?

    Ronald Ross tested the hypothesis that the Anopheles mosquito transmits the malarial parasite (Plasmodium).

  14. Why is water described as a 'universal solvent' in biological systems?

    Because its polarity allows it to dissolve a wide range of polar and ionic substances, making it the medium for most biochemical reactions and transport.

  15. What property of water gives it a high heat capacity, and why is this biologically important?

    Hydrogen bonding between water molecules; it lets water absorb/release large amounts of heat with little temperature change, stabilizing the temperature of organisms and environments.

  16. What is the role of water in chemical reactions such as hydrolysis and condensation?

    In hydrolysis water is added to break bonds; in condensation (dehydration synthesis) water is removed to form bonds between monomers.

  17. Why do aquatic organisms survive in frozen ponds, in terms of water's properties?

    Ice is less dense than liquid water and floats, insulating the water below so it stays liquid and life can continue.

  18. What is the general empirical formula of carbohydrates?

    (CH2O)n, i.e., a ratio of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen approximately 1:2:1.

  19. Classify carbohydrates into their three main groups with one example of each.

    Monosaccharides (e.g., glucose), Oligosaccharides/disaccharides (e.g., sucrose), and Polysaccharides (e.g., starch).

  20. Name the three common disaccharides and the monosaccharides that form each.

    Sucrose = glucose + fructose; Maltose = glucose + glucose; Lactose = glucose + galactose.

Show the other 48 Biology flashcards
  1. What type of bond links monosaccharide units in disaccharides and polysaccharides?

    A glycosidic bond.

  2. Compare the storage polysaccharides of plants and animals.

    Plants store glucose as starch; animals store glucose as glycogen (in liver and muscle).

  3. Which structural polysaccharide forms plant cell walls, and which forms the exoskeleton of insects?

    Cellulose forms plant cell walls; chitin forms the insect exoskeleton (and fungal cell walls).

  4. What is the general structure (functional groups) of an amino acid?

    A central carbon bonded to an amino group (-NH2), a carboxyl group (-COOH), a hydrogen atom, and a variable R (side) group.

  5. How many standard amino acids make up proteins, and what bond joins them?

    20 standard amino acids, joined by peptide bonds (formed by condensation between the carboxyl of one and the amino group of the next).

  6. Name and describe the four levels of protein structure.

    Primary = sequence of amino acids; Secondary = local folding into alpha-helix or beta-pleated sheet (H-bonds); Tertiary = overall 3D folding of one chain; Quaternary = assembly of two or more polypeptide chains.

  7. What is denaturation of a protein, and name two factors that cause it?

    Loss of a protein's native three-dimensional shape (and function) without breaking peptide bonds; caused by heat, extreme pH, heavy metals, or certain chemicals.

  8. What are the three main classes of lipids based on composition?

    Simple lipids (e.g., fats/oils and waxes), compound lipids (e.g., phospholipids, glycolipids), and derived lipids (e.g., steroids, terpenes).

  9. What are the building blocks of a triglyceride (fat)?

    One molecule of glycerol and three fatty acid molecules, joined by ester bonds.

  10. What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids?

    Saturated fatty acids have no carbon-carbon double bonds (solid at room temp, e.g., animal fats); unsaturated have one or more double bonds (liquid oils, e.g., plant oils).

  11. Why are phospholipids ideal components of cell membranes?

    They are amphipathic, with a hydrophilic (phosphate) head and hydrophobic (fatty acid) tails, so they spontaneously form a bilayer in water.

  12. Give two biological functions of steroids, naming an example steroid.

    Cholesterol stabilizes membranes and is a precursor for steroid hormones (e.g., testosterone, estrogen, and bile salts).

  13. What are the three components of a nucleotide?

    A nitrogenous base, a pentose (5-carbon) sugar, and a phosphate group.

  14. State the key differences between DNA and RNA in sugar, bases, and number of strands.

    DNA: deoxyribose sugar, bases A-T-G-C, double-stranded. RNA: ribose sugar, bases A-U-G-C (uracil replaces thymine), usually single-stranded.

  15. What are the complementary base-pairing rules in DNA?

    Adenine pairs with Thymine (A-T) by 2 hydrogen bonds; Guanine pairs with Cytosine (G-C) by 3 hydrogen bonds.

  16. Classify the nitrogenous bases into purines and pyrimidines.

    Purines (double ring): Adenine and Guanine. Pyrimidines (single ring): Cytosine, Thymine, and Uracil.

  17. Name the three types of RNA and their main roles.

    mRNA carries the genetic code to ribosomes; tRNA brings amino acids during translation; rRNA forms part of the ribosome structure.

  18. What is a conjugated molecule in biochemistry? Give an example.

    A molecule formed when two different classes of biomolecules combine; e.g., glycoproteins (carbohydrate + protein), lipoproteins (lipid + protein), nucleoproteins (nucleic acid + protein).

  19. What type of conjugated molecule is hemoglobin, and what is its non-protein part called?

    Hemoglobin is a conjugated protein; its non-protein prosthetic group is the iron-containing heme group.

  20. Chemically, what are enzymes, and what is their general role?

    Enzymes are biological catalysts, mostly globular proteins, that speed up biochemical reactions by lowering the activation energy without being consumed.

  21. List four key characteristics (properties) of enzymes.

    They are specific in action, highly efficient, reusable (not consumed), sensitive to temperature and pH, and lower activation energy.

  22. What is the difference between the lock-and-key model and the induced-fit model of enzyme action?

    Lock-and-key: the active site has a fixed shape exactly complementary to the substrate. Induced-fit: the active site is flexible and changes shape slightly to fit the substrate after binding.

  23. What is activation energy, and how do enzymes affect it?

    Activation energy is the minimum energy needed to start a reaction; enzymes lower it, allowing the reaction to proceed faster.

  24. What is the active site of an enzyme?

    The specific region of an enzyme where the substrate binds and the catalytic reaction takes place, forming the enzyme-substrate complex.

  25. How does temperature affect enzyme activity, including the optimum?

    Activity increases with temperature up to an optimum (often ~37 C in humans); beyond it the enzyme denatures and activity falls sharply.

  26. How does substrate concentration affect the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?

    Rate increases with substrate concentration until all active sites are saturated, after which the rate levels off (maximum/plateau).

  27. Why does pH affect enzyme activity, and what is meant by optimum pH?

    Extreme pH alters the charges/bonds in the active site and can denature the enzyme; optimum pH is the pH at which the enzyme works fastest (e.g., pepsin ~2, trypsin ~8).

  28. What is a cofactor, and how do coenzymes and prosthetic groups differ?

    A cofactor is a non-protein helper needed for enzyme activity; a coenzyme is a loosely bound organic cofactor (often a vitamin derivative), while a prosthetic group is tightly/permanently bound.

  29. Distinguish between competitive and non-competitive enzyme inhibition.

    Competitive inhibitors resemble the substrate and bind the active site (effect reduced by more substrate); non-competitive inhibitors bind a different site, change the enzyme's shape, and are not overcome by more substrate.

  30. What is feedback (end-product) inhibition?

    A regulatory mechanism where the final product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an enzyme earlier in the pathway, preventing overproduction.

  31. State the three principles of the cell theory.

    1) All living organisms are composed of one or more cells; 2) the cell is the basic structural and functional unit of life; 3) all cells arise from pre-existing cells.

  32. What are the functions of the mitochondrion, and why is it called the 'powerhouse of the cell'?

    It carries out aerobic respiration to produce ATP (energy); it is the powerhouse because it generates most of the cell's usable energy.

  33. Compare rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

    Rough ER has ribosomes and synthesizes/processes proteins; smooth ER lacks ribosomes and synthesizes lipids, stores calcium, and detoxifies substances.

  34. What is the main function of the Golgi apparatus?

    To modify, sort, package, and dispatch proteins and lipids into vesicles for secretion or delivery within the cell.

  35. What do lysosomes contain and do?

    They contain hydrolytic (digestive) enzymes that break down worn-out organelles, food particles, and foreign material (intracellular digestion).

  36. What is the function of ribosomes and what are they made of?

    Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis; they are composed of rRNA and proteins, with large and small subunits.

  37. Describe the fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane.

    The membrane is a fluid phospholipid bilayer with proteins (and cholesterol and carbohydrates) embedded in or attached to it, able to move laterally like a mosaic.

  38. Distinguish between passive and active transport across the cell membrane.

    Passive transport moves substances down a concentration gradient without energy (diffusion, osmosis, facilitated diffusion); active transport moves substances against the gradient using ATP.

  39. Define osmosis.

    The net movement of water molecules from a region of higher water potential (lower solute) to lower water potential (higher solute) across a selectively permeable membrane.

  40. What is the difference between endocytosis and exocytosis?

    Endocytosis brings large materials into the cell by engulfing them in a vesicle (phagocytosis/pinocytosis); exocytosis expels materials out of the cell by fusing a vesicle with the membrane.

  41. List at least four differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

    Prokaryotes: no true nucleus (nucleoid), no membrane-bound organelles, 70S ribosomes, circular DNA, usually small (1-10 um). Eukaryotes: true membrane-bound nucleus, membrane-bound organelles, 80S ribosomes, linear DNA with histones, larger (10-100 um).

  42. Which organisms are prokaryotic, and which kingdoms are eukaryotic?

    Bacteria (kingdom Monera) are prokaryotic; kingdoms Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia are eukaryotic.

  43. What is binomial nomenclature, who introduced it, and how is a name written?

    A two-name system introduced by Carolus Linnaeus: Genus (capitalized) + species (lowercase), italicized or underlined, e.g., Homo sapiens.

  44. List the taxonomic hierarchy from the broadest to the most specific rank.

    Kingdom -> Phylum (Division in plants) -> Class -> Order -> Family -> Genus -> Species.

  45. Name the five kingdoms of Whittaker's classification system and a defining feature of each.

    Monera (prokaryotic), Protista (mostly unicellular eukaryotes), Fungi (heterotrophic by absorption, chitin walls), Plantae (multicellular autotrophs, photosynthesis), Animalia (multicellular heterotrophs).

  46. Who proposed the five-kingdom classification system and in what year?

    Robert H. Whittaker, in 1969.

  47. To which kingdom do bacteria and cyanobacteria belong, and what cell type are they?

    Kingdom Monera; they are prokaryotic cells.

  48. What mode of nutrition characterizes kingdom Fungi?

    Heterotrophic nutrition by absorption (saprophytic or parasitic), digesting food externally and absorbing the nutrients.

Allied Health Sciences Entry Test Biology FAQ

What is in the Allied Health Sciences Entry Test Biology syllabus?

Allied Health Sciences Entry Test Biology is split into 12 chapters: Introduction to Biology and Biological Method, Biological Molecules, Enzymes, The Cell, Variety of Life and Kingdoms, Bioenergetics, Nutrition and Gaseous Exchange, Transport and Homeostasis, Support, Movement and Coordination, Reproduction, Growth and Development, Genetics and Molecular Biology and Evolution and Ecology. Together they contain 50 topics.

How many chapters are in Allied Health Sciences Entry Test Biology?

12 chapters, containing 50 topics. The largest chapter is Biological Molecules, with 6 topics.

Are there flashcards for Allied Health Sciences Entry Test Biology?

Yes — a 68-card Biology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.