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UPSC CMSE Gynecology and Obstetrics Syllabus

The Gynecology and Obstetrics syllabus for UPSC CMSE in full: 3 chapters and 18 topics, every one listed below, plus 67 Gynecology and Obstetrics flashcards with answers.

3Chapters
18Topics
67Flashcards

Gynecology and Obstetrics syllabus: all 3 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Obstetrics

    6 topics
    • Antenatal Care
    • Labor and Delivery
    • Postpartum Care
    • High-Risk Pregnancy
    • Pre-eclampsia and Eclampsia
    • Gestational Diabetes
  2. Gynecology

    6 topics
    • Menstrual Disorders
    • Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
    • Endometriosis
    • Uterine Fibroids
    • Ovarian Cysts
    • Gynecologic Cancers
  3. Reproductive Endocrinology

    6 topics
    • Infertility
    • Polycystic Ovary Syndrome
    • Menopause
    • Hormone Replacement Therapy
    • Contraception
    • Assisted Reproductive Technologies

UPSC CMSE Gynecology and Obstetrics flashcards — 67 questions with answers

  1. What is the recommended minimum number of antenatal care (ANC) visits per WHO 2016 guidelines?

    At least 8 ANC contacts during pregnancy (first by 12 weeks, then at 20, 26, 30, 34, 36, 38, and 40 weeks).

  2. By what gestational age should the first antenatal visit ideally occur?

    Within the first trimester, ideally before 12 weeks of gestation.

  3. What is the recommended daily dose of folic acid before conception and in early pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects?

    400 micrograms (0.4 mg) daily; 5 mg daily for high-risk women (e.g., previous NTD-affected pregnancy).

  4. What is the expected total weight gain in pregnancy for a woman of normal pre-pregnancy BMI?

    11.5 to 16 kg (approximately 25 to 35 lb).

  5. By Naegele's rule, how is the estimated due date (EDD) calculated from the last menstrual period (LMP)?

    EDD = first day of LMP minus 3 months plus 7 days plus 1 year (assumes a 28-day cycle).

  6. What are the three stages of labor?

    First stage: onset of regular contractions to full cervical dilation (10 cm). Second stage: full dilation to delivery of the baby. Third stage: delivery of baby to delivery of the placenta.

  7. What distinguishes the latent from the active phase of the first stage of labor?

    Latent phase: cervix dilates from 0 to about 6 cm with slow progress; active phase: from about 6 cm to full dilation (10 cm) with faster, more regular contractions.

  8. What are the cardinal movements of labor in order?

    Engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation (restitution), and expulsion.

  9. What defines prolonged third stage of labor and what is its main risk?

    Placenta not delivered within 30 minutes of birth; main risk is postpartum hemorrhage.

  10. What are the components of active management of the third stage of labor (AMTSL)?

    Administration of a uterotonic (e.g., oxytocin) after delivery, controlled cord traction, and uterine massage after placental delivery.

  11. What is the most common cause of primary postpartum hemorrhage?

    Uterine atony (failure of the uterus to contract), accounting for about 70-80% of cases.

  12. How is primary versus secondary postpartum hemorrhage defined by timing?

    Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours of delivery; secondary PPH occurs from 24 hours to 12 weeks postpartum.

  13. What blood loss thresholds define postpartum hemorrhage for vaginal and cesarean deliveries?

    More than 500 mL after vaginal delivery and more than 1000 mL after cesarean delivery.

  14. What are the '4 Ts' causes of postpartum hemorrhage?

    Tone (uterine atony), Trauma (lacerations/rupture), Tissue (retained placenta), and Thrombin (coagulopathy).

  15. What is the normal duration of postpartum lochia and its color progression?

    Lochia lasts up to 4-6 weeks, progressing from lochia rubra (red) to lochia serosa (pink-brown) to lochia alba (yellow-white).

  16. What hormone, suppressed during pregnancy, surges after delivery to initiate lactation, and which triggers milk ejection?

    Prolactin drives milk production (rises as placental estrogen/progesterone fall); oxytocin triggers the milk ejection (let-down) reflex.

  17. How is postpartum blues distinguished from postpartum depression?

    Postpartum blues is mild, self-limiting mood disturbance peaking around days 3-5 and resolving within 2 weeks; postpartum depression is more severe, persists beyond 2 weeks, and requires treatment.

  18. Name three common conditions that classify a pregnancy as high-risk.

    Chronic hypertension or pre-eclampsia, pre-existing or gestational diabetes, and advanced maternal age (35 years or older); others include multiple gestation and prior cesarean.

  19. What is the diagnostic blood pressure threshold for hypertension in pregnancy?

    Systolic 140 mmHg or higher and/or diastolic 90 mmHg or higher, on two occasions at least 4 hours apart.

  20. What criteria define pre-eclampsia?

    New-onset hypertension (BP greater than or equal to 140/90) after 20 weeks gestation plus proteinuria or evidence of end-organ dysfunction (e.g., renal, hepatic, neurological, hematological, or fetal growth restriction).

Show the other 47 Gynecology and Obstetrics flashcards
  1. What distinguishes eclampsia from pre-eclampsia?

    Eclampsia is the occurrence of new-onset generalized tonic-clonic seizures in a woman with pre-eclampsia, not attributable to other causes.

  2. What is the drug of choice for preventing and treating eclamptic seizures?

    Magnesium sulfate (MgSO4).

  3. What are the clinical signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity and the antidote?

    Loss of deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and reduced urine output; antidote is intravenous calcium gluconate.

  4. What does the HELLP syndrome acronym stand for?

    Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelets — a severe variant of pre-eclampsia.

  5. What is the only definitive treatment (cure) for pre-eclampsia and eclampsia?

    Delivery of the fetus and placenta.

  6. Which antihypertensives are commonly used and which are contraindicated in pregnancy?

    Used: labetalol, methyldopa, nifedipine, hydralazine. Contraindicated: ACE inhibitors and ARBs (fetal renal damage/teratogenicity).

  7. What are the diagnostic criteria for gestational diabetes using the 75 g OGTT (IADPSG/WHO)?

    Fasting glucose greater than or equal to 92 mg/dL, 1-hour greater than or equal to 180 mg/dL, or 2-hour greater than or equal to 153 mg/dL — any one value confirms GDM.

  8. At what gestational age is screening for gestational diabetes routinely performed?

    Between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation.

  9. What is the first-line management of gestational diabetes, and the preferred pharmacologic agent if needed?

    First-line is medical nutrition therapy and exercise; insulin is the preferred drug when pharmacotherapy is required.

  10. Name two major fetal complications of poorly controlled gestational diabetes.

    Macrosomia (with shoulder dystocia risk) and neonatal hypoglycemia; also polyhydramnios and respiratory distress syndrome.

  11. Define menorrhagia and metrorrhagia.

    Menorrhagia is excessive or prolonged menstrual bleeding at regular intervals; metrorrhagia is irregular bleeding between expected menstrual periods.

  12. What does the PALM-COEIN classification categorize, and what do the two groups represent?

    It categorizes causes of abnormal uterine bleeding: PALM = structural (Polyp, Adenomyosis, Leiomyoma, Malignancy/hyperplasia); COEIN = non-structural (Coagulopathy, Ovulatory dysfunction, Endometrial, Iatrogenic, Not yet classified).

  13. Define primary versus secondary dysmenorrhea.

    Primary dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation without underlying pelvic pathology (due to prostaglandins); secondary dysmenorrhea is caused by pelvic pathology such as endometriosis or fibroids.

  14. What is pelvic inflammatory disease and its two most common causative organisms?

    PID is infection of the upper female genital tract (uterus, tubes, ovaries); most commonly caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis.

  15. What is the classic clinical triad/findings on examination suggesting PID?

    Lower abdominal/pelvic pain with cervical motion tenderness, adnexal tenderness, and uterine tenderness, often with fever and abnormal discharge.

  16. What is Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome?

    Perihepatitis (inflammation of the liver capsule) causing right upper quadrant pain as a complication of PID.

  17. Name two major long-term sequelae of untreated pelvic inflammatory disease.

    Tubal factor infertility and increased risk of ectopic pregnancy; also chronic pelvic pain.

  18. What is endometriosis?

    The presence of functional endometrial-like tissue (glands and stroma) outside the uterine cavity, commonly on ovaries, peritoneum, and uterosacral ligaments.

  19. What is the classic symptom triad of endometriosis?

    Dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and infertility (often with chronic pelvic pain).

  20. What is an endometrioma and how does it appear?

    An ovarian cyst filled with old/altered blood from endometriosis, known as a 'chocolate cyst' because of its thick brown contents.

  21. What is the gold-standard method for definitive diagnosis of endometriosis?

    Laparoscopy with direct visualization and histological confirmation of lesions.

  22. What are uterine fibroids (leiomyomas) and on what hormone are they dependent?

    Benign smooth muscle tumors of the myometrium; they are estrogen (and progesterone) dependent and typically regress after menopause.

  23. Name the three main location-based types of uterine fibroids.

    Submucosal (beneath endometrium), intramural (within the myometrial wall), and subserosal (beneath the serosa, projecting outward).

  24. Which type of uterine fibroid most commonly causes heavy menstrual bleeding and infertility?

    Submucosal fibroids, because they distort the endometrial cavity.

  25. What is the most common type of physiologic ovarian cyst, and what is its typical course?

    Functional cysts — follicular and corpus luteum cysts; they are usually benign and resolve spontaneously within a few menstrual cycles.

  26. What is the gravest acute complication of an ovarian cyst and its hallmark symptom?

    Ovarian torsion — sudden severe unilateral lower abdominal pain (a surgical emergency); rupture causing hemoperitoneum is another acute complication.

  27. What is the most common gynecologic cancer, and which is the most lethal, in many populations?

    Endometrial (uterine) cancer is the most common gynecologic malignancy; ovarian cancer is the most lethal due to late detection.

  28. Which virus causes most cervical cancers, and what is the key screening test?

    Human papillomavirus (HPV), especially types 16 and 18; the Pap smear (cervical cytology) with HPV testing is the key screening tool.

  29. What tumor marker is commonly elevated in epithelial ovarian cancer?

    CA-125.

  30. How is infertility clinically defined?

    Failure to conceive after 12 months of regular unprotected intercourse (6 months if the woman is 35 years or older).

  31. What is the most common cause of anovulatory infertility in women of reproductive age?

    Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).

  32. What are the Rotterdam criteria for diagnosing PCOS?

    At least 2 of 3: oligo-/anovulation, clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound (12 or more follicles or ovarian volume greater than 10 mL), after excluding other causes.

  33. What is the first-line ovulation induction agent in PCOS-related infertility?

    Letrozole (an aromatase inhibitor) is now first-line; clomiphene citrate is an alternative.

  34. How is menopause clinically defined?

    The permanent cessation of menstruation confirmed after 12 consecutive months of amenorrhea (average age around 51 years).

  35. What hormonal changes characterize menopause?

    Markedly decreased estrogen with elevated FSH and LH due to loss of negative feedback from ovarian follicular depletion.

  36. Name three common symptoms of menopause.

    Vasomotor symptoms (hot flashes/night sweats), vaginal dryness/atrophy, and mood or sleep disturbances; long-term effects include osteoporosis.

  37. When is combined (estrogen plus progestogen) HRT used rather than estrogen-only, and why?

    Combined HRT is used in women with an intact uterus; the progestogen protects the endometrium from estrogen-induced hyperplasia and cancer. Estrogen-only HRT is used after hysterectomy.

  38. Name two major risks associated with hormone replacement therapy.

    Increased risk of venous thromboembolism and breast cancer (with combined HRT); estrogen-only HRT raises endometrial cancer risk if the uterus is present.

  39. Which contraceptive method is the most effective reversible method available?

    Long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs) — intrauterine devices and the subdermal implant (failure rates under 1%).

  40. What is the primary mechanism of action of combined oral contraceptive pills?

    Suppression of ovulation by inhibiting the LH surge and FSH (via negative feedback), plus thickening cervical mucus and thinning the endometrium.

  41. Name two absolute contraindications to combined oral contraceptive pills.

    History of venous thromboembolism and migraine with aura; others include active breast cancer, uncontrolled hypertension, and smoking over age 35.

  42. What is the mechanism of action of the levonorgestrel and the copper intrauterine devices?

    Copper IUD: copper is spermicidal and prevents fertilization/implantation; levonorgestrel IUD: thickens cervical mucus, thins endometrium, and partially suppresses ovulation.

  43. Within what time frames are the levonorgestrel pill and the copper IUD effective as emergency contraception?

    Levonorgestrel emergency pill within 72 hours (up to 120 with reduced efficacy); copper IUD within 5 days and is the most effective emergency method.

  44. What is in vitro fertilization (IVF) and its basic sequence of steps?

    An assisted reproductive technique where eggs are retrieved after controlled ovarian stimulation, fertilized with sperm in the laboratory, and the resulting embryo(s) transferred into the uterus.

  45. What is the difference between IUI and IVF?

    IUI (intrauterine insemination) places washed sperm directly into the uterus around ovulation for in vivo fertilization; IVF fertilizes the egg outside the body in the lab before embryo transfer.

  46. What is ICSI and when is it primarily indicated?

    Intracytoplasmic sperm injection — a single sperm is injected directly into an oocyte; primarily indicated for severe male-factor infertility.

  47. What is the most significant complication of controlled ovarian stimulation in ART?

    Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS), characterized by enlarged ovaries, fluid shifts, ascites, and risk of thromboembolism.

UPSC CMSE Gynecology and Obstetrics FAQ

What is in the UPSC CMSE Gynecology and Obstetrics syllabus?

UPSC CMSE Gynecology and Obstetrics is split into 3 chapters: Obstetrics, Gynecology and Reproductive Endocrinology. Together they contain 18 topics.

How many chapters are in UPSC CMSE Gynecology and Obstetrics?

3 chapters, containing 18 topics. The largest chapter is Obstetrics, with 6 topics.

Are there flashcards for UPSC CMSE Gynecology and Obstetrics?

Yes — a 67-card Gynecology and Obstetrics deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.