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United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) Behavioral Science, Psychiatry, and Population Health Syllabus
The Behavioral Science, Psychiatry, and Population Health syllabus for United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) in full: 4 chapters, 18 topics and 10 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Behavioral Science, Psychiatry, and Population Health flashcards with answers.
Behavioral Science, Psychiatry, and Population Health syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Psychiatry and Behavioral Health
5 topics- Mood and anxiety disorders
- Major depression and bipolar disorder
- Generalized anxiety and panic
- Psychotic disorders
- Schizophrenia spectrum
- Substance use disorders
- Intoxication and withdrawal
- Personality, somatic, and eating disorders
- Psychopharmacology
- Mood and anxiety disorders
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Behavioral Science and Human Development
4 topics- Life-cycle development and aging
- Sleep physiology and disorders
- Stress, coping, and health behavior
- Sexuality and gender
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Biostatistics and Epidemiology
5 topics- Study design
- Cohort, case-control, RCT
- Bias and confounding
- Diagnostic test characteristics
- Sensitivity, specificity, predictive values
- Measures of association and risk
- Relative risk and odds ratio
- Hypothesis testing and statistical inference
- Evidence-based medicine and screening
- Study design
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Public Health and Preventive Medicine
4 topics- Disease prevention levels
- Health screening guidelines
- Cancer screening recommendations
- Health systems and quality improvement
- Patient safety and error reduction
- Population and global health
United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) Behavioral Science, Psychiatry, and Population Health flashcards — 51 questions with answers
What are the DSM-5 diagnostic time thresholds that distinguish major depressive disorder (MDD) from persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)?
MDD requires >=5 depressive symptoms (including depressed mood or anhedonia) for >=2 weeks. Persistent depressive disorder requires depressed mood most of the day, more days than not, for >=2 years (>=1 year in children/adolescents).
What is the key diagnostic difference between bipolar I and bipolar II disorder?
Bipolar I requires at least one full manic episode (>=1 week, or any duration if hospitalized), with or without depression. Bipolar II requires at least one hypomanic episode (>=4 days) plus at least one major depressive episode, and NO history of full mania.
How are generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and specific phobia distinguished by their core anxiety pattern?
GAD = excessive, persistent worry about multiple events for >=6 months. Panic disorder = recurrent unexpected panic attacks plus >=1 month of anticipatory anxiety/avoidance. Specific phobia = marked fear cued by a specific object/situation, lasting >=6 months.
What is the minimum symptom duration to diagnose schizophrenia, and how does it relate to schizophreniform and brief psychotic disorder?
Schizophrenia requires continuous signs for >=6 months (with >=1 month of active-phase symptoms). Schizophreniform disorder = 1 to 6 months. Brief psychotic disorder = >=1 day but <1 month with full return to baseline.
How do schizoaffective disorder and a mood disorder with psychotic features differ?
Schizoaffective disorder requires >=2 weeks of psychotic symptoms in the ABSENCE of a major mood episode (with mood symptoms present a majority of the illness). In mood disorder with psychotic features, psychosis occurs ONLY during mood episodes.
List the positive versus negative symptoms of schizophrenia and which class responds poorly to typical antipsychotics.
Positive: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech/behavior. Negative: flat affect, alogia, avolition, anhedonia, asociality. Typical (first-generation) antipsychotics treat positive symptoms well but are relatively ineffective for negative symptoms.
What is the time course distinguishing alcohol withdrawal tremulousness, withdrawal seizures, alcoholic hallucinosis, and delirium tremens?
Tremulousness/anxiety: 6-24 h. Withdrawal seizures: 12-48 h. Alcoholic hallucinosis (usually visual, sensorium intact): 12-48 h. Delirium tremens (autonomic instability, confusion, hallucinations): 48-96 h, highest mortality.
Contrast the clinical findings of opioid intoxication versus opioid withdrawal.
Intoxication: CNS/respiratory depression, MIOSIS (pinpoint pupils), constipation, euphoria. Withdrawal: mydriasis, lacrimation, rhinorrhea, yawning, diarrhea, piloerection, myalgias, dysphoria - uncomfortable but rarely life-threatening.
What medications treat opioid use disorder, and what is the mechanism of each?
Methadone (full mu-opioid agonist), buprenorphine (partial mu-agonist, often combined with naloxone), and naltrexone (mu-opioid antagonist). Naloxone is the short-acting antagonist used to reverse acute overdose.
Define the Cluster A, B, and C personality disorder groupings and their general theme.
Cluster A (odd/eccentric): paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal. Cluster B (dramatic/emotional/erratic): antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic. Cluster C (anxious/fearful): avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive.
How do somatic symptom disorder, illness anxiety disorder, conversion disorder, and factitious disorder differ?
Somatic symptom disorder: >=1 distressing somatic symptom with excessive thoughts/anxiety. Illness anxiety disorder: preoccupation with HAVING illness with minimal symptoms. Conversion: neurologic deficit incompatible with disease. Factitious: intentional falsification to assume the sick role (no external gain).
Contrast anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa on body weight and core behaviors.
Anorexia nervosa: significantly LOW body weight, intense fear of weight gain, restriction +/- binge-purge. Bulimia nervosa: NORMAL or above-normal weight, recurrent binge eating with compensatory behaviors >=1x/week for 3 months.
Which SSRI is generally avoided in the first trimester of pregnancy and why, and which is often preferred?
Paroxetine is avoided in the first trimester due to association with cardiac (e.g., septal) defects. Sertraline is often preferred in pregnancy given relatively favorable safety data.
What are the cardinal features and treatment of serotonin syndrome, and how does it differ from neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)?
Serotonin syndrome: clonus, hyperreflexia, tremor, autonomic instability, agitation; onset within hours; treat with cyproheptadine. NMS (dopamine antagonists): lead-pipe rigidity, hyporeflexia, hyperthermia; onset over days; treat with dantrolene/bromocriptine.
What ongoing monitoring is required for clozapine, and what serious adverse effect drives it?
Clozapine requires regular absolute neutrophil count (ANC) monitoring because of the risk of agranulocytosis. It can also cause myocarditis, seizures, and metabolic effects, and is reserved for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.
What dietary restriction and drug interaction are critical for patients taking MAO inhibitors?
Avoid tyramine-rich foods (aged cheese, cured meats, wine) to prevent hypertensive crisis, and avoid serotonergic drugs (SSRIs, meperidine) to prevent serotonin syndrome. A washout period is needed when switching agents.
What motor, social, and language milestones are expected at approximately 12 months of age?
~12 months: first steps/walks with assistance, pincer grasp, says 1-2 words, waves bye-bye, separation anxiety present, follows a one-step command with gesture.
According to Erikson, what is the psychosocial conflict of adolescence and of the toddler stage?
Adolescence (~12-18 yr): identity vs. role confusion. Toddler (~1-3 yr): autonomy vs. shame and doubt. (Infancy: trust vs. mistrust.)
What are the Kubler-Ross stages of grief, and how is normal grief distinguished from a major depressive episode?
Stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance (not necessarily sequential). Normal grief: waves of sadness, possible illusions of the deceased, preserved self-worth, improving by ~6-12 months. Pervasive worthlessness and active suicidality suggest a depressive episode.
Describe the sequence of normal sleep stages and identify which contains slow-wave (delta) sleep.
N1 (light, theta) -> N2 (sleep spindles, K complexes) -> N3 (slow-wave/delta, deepest) -> REM (dreaming, muscle atonia, EEG resembling wakefulness). N3 dominates early in the night; REM lengthens toward morning.
Show the other 31 Behavioral Science, Psychiatry, and Population Health flashcards
What is the classic tetrad of narcolepsy and its first-line treatments?
Tetrad: excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, hypnagogic/hypnopompic hallucinations, sleep paralysis; due to low CSF orexin (hypocretin). First-line: modafinil for sleepiness; sodium oxybate or SNRIs/SSRIs for cataplexy.
In which sleep stage do night terrors and sleepwalking occur versus nightmares?
Night terrors and sleepwalking occur in N3 (slow-wave, non-REM) sleep, typically without recall, in the first third of the night. Nightmares occur during REM sleep with vivid recall.
Distinguish acute stress disorder from PTSD by symptom duration and list first-line treatment.
Acute stress disorder: symptoms last 3 days to 1 month after trauma. PTSD: symptoms persist >1 month (intrusion, avoidance, negative cognition/mood, hyperarousal). First-line treatment: SSRIs/SNRIs and trauma-focused CBT.
List the stages of the transtheoretical (Prochaska) model of behavior change.
Precontemplation -> contemplation -> preparation -> action -> maintenance (with possible relapse). Counseling (e.g., motivational interviewing) is tailored to the patient's stage.
What are the stages of Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome and their dominant mediators?
Alarm (acute sympathetic/catecholamine surge), resistance (sustained cortisol via the HPA axis), and exhaustion (resource depletion). Chronic stress elevates cortisol, impairing immune function and wound healing.
What are the four phases of the Masters and Johnson human sexual response cycle?
Excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution (males have a refractory period during resolution). Sexual dysfunctions are classified by the affected phase.
Define sex, gender identity, and sexual orientation as distinct concepts.
Sex = biological/anatomic and chromosomal classification. Gender identity = internal sense of being male, female, both, or neither. Sexual orientation = pattern of emotional/sexual attraction. These three dimensions are independent.
Which study design is best for a rare disease, and which is best for a rare exposure?
Rare DISEASE: case-control study (diseased vs. non-diseased, look back at exposure; yields odds ratio). Rare EXPOSURE: cohort study (exposed vs. unexposed, follow forward; yields relative risk).
How does a cohort study differ from a cross-sectional study in temporality and the measure produced?
Cohort: longitudinal follow-up; establishes temporality and computes incidence/relative risk. Cross-sectional: single point in time (snapshot); yields prevalence but cannot establish temporality or causality.
What feature of a randomized controlled trial minimizes confounding, and what does double-blinding control for?
Randomization distributes known and unknown confounders equally between groups, minimizing confounding. Double-blinding (patient and assessor unaware of allocation) minimizes observer/ascertainment bias and placebo effects.
Define sensitivity and specificity, and give the SnNout and SpPin mnemonics.
Sensitivity = TP/(TP+FN), true positive rate. Specificity = TN/(TN+FP), true negative rate. SnNout: a highly Sensitive test, when Negative, rules OUT disease. SpPin: a highly Specific test, when Positive, rules IN disease.
Define PPV and NPV and state how disease prevalence affects each.
PPV = TP/(TP+FP) = probability of disease given a positive test. NPV = TN/(TN+FN) = probability of no disease given a negative test. As prevalence rises, PPV increases and NPV decreases. Sensitivity/specificity are independent of prevalence.
Define positive and negative likelihood ratios and what values indicate a clinically useful test.
LR+ = sensitivity/(1 - specificity); LR- = (1 - sensitivity)/specificity. LR+ >10 and LR- <0.1 strongly shift disease probability. Likelihood ratios are prevalence-independent and convert pre-test to post-test odds.
How does lowering a test's cutoff to increase sensitivity affect specificity, and what does the ROC curve show?
Increasing sensitivity (lower threshold) generally decreases specificity (a trade-off). The ROC curve plots sensitivity vs. 1 - specificity across cutoffs; larger area under the curve (AUC closer to 1) indicates a better test.
Write the formulas for relative risk (RR) and odds ratio (OR), and state when OR approximates RR.
RR = [a/(a+b)] / [c/(c+d)] (incidence in exposed / unexposed; cohort/RCT). OR = (a*d)/(b*c) (case-control). The OR approximates the RR when the disease is rare.
Define attributable risk, relative risk reduction, absolute risk reduction, and number needed to treat.
AR = risk in exposed - risk in unexposed. RRR = 1 - RR. ARR = control event rate - treatment event rate. NNT = 1/ARR (number treated to prevent one outcome); NNH = 1/(absolute risk increase).
Define incidence and prevalence and state their relationship.
Incidence = new cases / population at risk over time. Prevalence = existing cases / total population at a point in time. Prevalence ~= incidence x average disease duration; it rises with longer survival or duration.
Define type I error, type II error, alpha, beta, and statistical power.
Type I error (alpha): rejecting a true null hypothesis (false positive). Type II error (beta): failing to reject a false null (false negative). Power = 1 - beta, the probability of detecting a true effect; increased by larger sample and effect size.
What is a p-value, and when does a 95% confidence interval indicate significance for a difference of means versus a ratio (RR/OR)?
A p-value is the probability of results as extreme as observed if the null were true; p<0.05 is conventionally significant. A 95% CI for a difference of means is significant if it excludes 0; a 95% CI for an RR/OR is significant if it excludes 1.
Match the appropriate statistical test: two means, three or more means, and two categorical variables.
Two means: t-test. Three or more means: ANOVA. Two or more categorical variables/proportions: chi-square test. (Correlation/regression assess relationships between continuous variables.)
For a normal distribution, what percentage of values fall within 1, 2, and 3 standard deviations of the mean?
About 68% within +/-1 SD, 95% within +/-2 SD (precisely 1.96), and 99.7% within +/-3 SD. The standard error of the mean = SD/sqrt(n) and decreases with larger sample size.
What is the hierarchy of evidence in evidence-based medicine, from strongest to weakest?
Systematic reviews/meta-analyses of RCTs > individual RCTs > cohort studies > case-control studies > case series/reports > expert opinion. Meta-analyses pool data but are limited by publication bias and heterogeneity.
What characteristics make a disease appropriate for screening (Wilson-Jungner criteria)?
The disease should be common/serious with a detectable asymptomatic (preclinical) phase; an effective, acceptable treatment must exist; a suitable, accurate, acceptable test must be available; and early treatment must improve outcomes.
Define lead-time bias and length-time bias in screening.
Lead-time bias: earlier detection makes survival APPEAR longer though death timing is unchanged. Length-time bias: screening preferentially detects slowly progressive disease, falsely improving apparent survival. Mortality-based randomized trials avoid both.
Define primary, secondary, and tertiary disease prevention with an example of each.
Primary: prevent disease onset (vaccination, seatbelts). Secondary: detect/treat early or asymptomatic disease (Pap smear, mammography). Tertiary: reduce complications/disability in established disease (stroke rehab, diabetic foot care).
What are the general screening recommendations for colorectal and cervical cancer?
Colorectal cancer: begin at age 45 (e.g., colonoscopy every 10 years) for average-risk adults through 75. Cervical cancer: start at 21 with cytology every 3 years; ages 30-65 cytology q3y or HPV/co-testing q5y.
What are the recommended screening parameters for breast cancer and abdominal aortic aneurysm?
Breast cancer: biennial mammography for women 50-74 (offered starting at 40 per updated guidance). AAA: one-time ultrasound for men aged 65-75 who have ever smoked.
What is the Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA) cycle, and how does quality improvement differ from research?
PDSA is an iterative QI cycle: Plan a change, Do (implement on a small scale), Study results, Act (adopt/adapt/abandon). QI improves local processes via rapid cycles; research generates generalizable knowledge with fixed protocols.
In the Swiss cheese model, how do active errors differ from latent errors, and what is a sentinel event?
Active errors occur at the sharp end (point of care) with immediate effect (e.g., wrong drug given). Latent errors are system/organizational flaws (blunt end), e.g., understaffing. A sentinel event causes death or serious harm and triggers root cause analysis.
Name the six Institute of Medicine aims for quality healthcare (STEEEP).
Safe, Timely, Effective, Efficient, Equitable, and Patient-centered. (Donabedian separately evaluates quality by Structure, Process, and Outcome.)
What are the leading global causes of death and child mortality, and what does a DALY measure?
Cardiovascular disease (ischemic heart disease, stroke) leads adult mortality; lower respiratory infections, diarrheal disease, and neonatal conditions dominate child mortality. DALY = years of life lost (YLL) + years lived with disability (YLD), quantifying total disease burden.
United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) Behavioral Science, Psychiatry, and Population Health FAQ
What is in the United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) Behavioral Science, Psychiatry, and Population Health syllabus?
United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) Behavioral Science, Psychiatry, and Population Health is split into 4 chapters: Psychiatry and Behavioral Health, Behavioral Science and Human Development, Biostatistics and Epidemiology and Public Health and Preventive Medicine. Together they contain 18 topics and 10 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) Behavioral Science, Psychiatry, and Population Health?
4 chapters, containing 18 topics and 10 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Psychiatry and Behavioral Health, with 5 topics.
Are there flashcards for United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) Behavioral Science, Psychiatry, and Population Health?
Yes — a 51-card Behavioral Science, Psychiatry, and Population Health deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.