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Uniform Bar Examination (UBE) Family Law, Conflict of Laws, and the MPT Syllabus

The Family Law, Conflict of Laws, and the MPT syllabus for Uniform Bar Examination (UBE) in full: 4 chapters, 14 topics and 42 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Family Law, Conflict of Laws, and the MPT flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
14Topics
42Sub-topics
51Flashcards

Family Law, Conflict of Laws, and the MPT syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Family Law

    4 topics
    • Marriage and Its Alternatives
      • Requirements for a valid marriage
      • Common law marriage and putative spouses
      • Premarital agreements
    • Dissolution of Marriage
      • Grounds for divorce and annulment
      • Division of marital property
      • Spousal support (alimony)
    • Child Custody and Support
      • Best interests of the child standard
      • Modification and enforcement of custody
      • Child support guidelines and the UIFSA
    • Parentage and Children
      • Establishing parentage
      • Adoption
      • Termination of parental rights
  2. Conflict of Laws

    3 topics
    • Domicile and Choice-of-Law Theories
      • Domicile and its determination
      • Traditional vested rights approach
      • Most significant relationship and interest analysis
    • Application by Subject Area
      • Torts and contracts choice of law
      • Property and family law issues
      • Substance vs. procedure characterization
    • Recognition of Judgments
      • Full Faith and Credit Clause
      • Recognition of foreign-country judgments
      • Defenses to enforcement
  3. Secured Transactions

    3 topics
    • Scope and Attachment
      • Scope of UCC Article 9
      • Classification of collateral
      • Attachment of the security interest
    • Perfection
      • Methods of perfection (filing, possession, control)
      • Automatic perfection (PMSI)
      • Continuation and termination
    • Priority and Default
      • Priority rules among competing claimants
      • PMSI super-priority
      • Rights and remedies on default
  4. The Multistate Performance Test (MPT)

    4 topics
    • Lawyering Skills Assessed
      • Fact analysis and synthesis
      • Legal analysis and reasoning
      • Recognizing and resolving ethical dilemmas
    • The File and the Library
      • Working with the case file (factual materials)
      • Using the library (cases, statutes, regulations)
      • Identifying relevant from irrelevant materials
    • Common Task Types
      • Persuasive briefs and memoranda
      • Objective legal memoranda
      • Client letters and demand letters
      • Contracts, pleadings, and discovery plans
    • Time and Format Management
      • Following task instructions and format conventions
      • Organizing under timed conditions

Uniform Bar Examination (UBE) Family Law, Conflict of Laws, and the MPT flashcards — 51 questions with answers

  1. What are the essential elements required for a valid ceremonial marriage in most U.S. states?

    (1) Legal capacity of both parties (of age, not already married, not too closely related), (2) a license, (3) a ceremony/solemnization by an authorized officiant, and (4) mutual present intent/consent to marry.

  2. What three elements establish a valid common-law marriage in the minority of states that still recognize it?

    (1) Present agreement/intent to be married, (2) cohabitation, and (3) holding themselves out publicly as married. No ceremony or license is required.

  3. Distinguish a void marriage from a voidable marriage.

    A void marriage is invalid from inception and never legally existed (e.g., bigamy, incest); no decree is needed and anyone can challenge it. A voidable marriage is valid until annulled and can only be challenged by a party during their lifetime (e.g., fraud, duress, nonage, impotence).

  4. Under the doctrine of marriage validity, what is the general 'place of celebration' rule?

    A marriage valid where celebrated is valid everywhere, unless it violates a strong public policy of the state with the most significant relationship to the parties (e.g., incest, bigamy, polygamy).

  5. What is a putative marriage and what protection does it offer?

    A putative marriage exists when at least one spouse has a good-faith belief the marriage is valid despite an impediment; the good-faith spouse may receive equitable relief such as property division or support as if validly married.

  6. What did Obergefell v. Hodges (2015) hold regarding marriage?

    The Fourteenth Amendment's Due Process and Equal Protection Clauses require states to license same-sex marriages and to recognize same-sex marriages lawfully performed in other states.

  7. What is the legal effect of a cohabitation agreement between unmarried partners?

    It is generally enforceable as a contract (express or, in many states, implied) so long as consideration is not solely meretricious sexual services; under Marvin v. Marvin courts may enforce property/support agreements between cohabitants.

  8. What is the difference between a divorce, an annulment, and a legal separation?

    Divorce dissolves a valid marriage prospectively; annulment declares that no valid marriage ever existed; legal separation keeps the marriage intact but resolves support/property/custody while the parties live apart.

  9. What is the basis for 'no-fault' divorce, available in every U.S. state?

    Irreconcilable differences or an irretrievable breakdown of the marriage (and in some states, living separate and apart for a statutory period). No proof of marital misconduct is required.

  10. Name the traditional fault-based grounds for divorce.

    Adultery, cruelty (physical or mental), desertion/abandonment, habitual drunkenness or drug addiction, and incurable insanity/imprisonment.

  11. List the four traditional defenses to a fault-based divorce.

    (1) Collusion (spouses fabricate grounds), (2) connivance (consent to the misconduct), (3) condonation (forgiveness/resumption of relations), and (4) recrimination (both spouses guilty of a fault ground).

  12. What is the difference between equitable distribution and community property systems?

    Equitable distribution (majority) divides marital property fairly/equitably, not necessarily equally, considering many factors. Community property (minority of states) presumptively splits property acquired during marriage 50/50.

  13. What distinguishes marital property from separate property in a divorce?

    Marital property is generally that acquired during the marriage by either spouse; separate property is acquired before marriage or during marriage by gift, bequest, devise, or inheritance (and assets traceable to it, absent commingling).

  14. What factors do courts weigh when awarding spousal support (alimony)?

    Length of the marriage, standard of living, age and health of the parties, each spouse's income/earning capacity, contributions (including homemaking), and the recipient's need versus the payor's ability to pay.

  15. Name the common types of alimony.

    Permanent (lifetime/indefinite), rehabilitative (temporary, to allow self-support), reimbursement (to repay support of the other's education/career), and lump-sum (a fixed total amount).

  16. What is the modern primary standard governing child custody decisions?

    The 'best interests of the child,' weighing factors such as the child's needs, each parent's fitness, stability, the child's wishes (if mature), primary caretaker history, and willingness to foster the other parent's relationship.

  17. Distinguish legal custody from physical custody.

    Legal custody is the right to make major decisions about the child (education, health, religion). Physical custody is where the child lives and day-to-day care. Either may be sole or joint.

  18. What is the predominant model used to calculate child support obligations?

    The income shares model (majority), which estimates the amount parents would have spent on the child if intact and apportions it by each parent's share of combined income; some states use the percentage-of-obligor-income model.

  19. Which statute governs interstate jurisdiction in child custody disputes, and what is the key jurisdictional concept?

    The Uniform Child Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act (UCCJEA); jurisdiction lies in the child's 'home state'—where the child lived with a parent for the 6 months before the proceeding.

  20. Which act governs interstate enforcement and modification of child support orders?

    The Uniform Interstate Family Support Act (UIFSA), which establishes continuing exclusive jurisdiction in the issuing state and allows only one controlling support order at a time.

Show the other 31 Family Law, Conflict of Laws, and the MPT flashcards
  1. Can child support obligations be modified, and on what showing?

    Yes—prospectively, upon a substantial and continuing change in circumstances (e.g., changed income, child's needs). Past-due (vested) arrears generally cannot be retroactively reduced.

  2. What is the marital presumption of parentage?

    A child born to a married woman is presumed to be the child of her husband (or spouse); this rebuttable presumption is one of the strongest in family law and may be challenged by genetic testing within statutory limits.

  3. How may a man establish or be deemed the legal father of a child born out of wedlock?

    By voluntary acknowledgment of paternity, by holding the child out as his own/receiving the child into his home, by genetic (DNA) testing in a paternity action, or by court adjudication.

  4. What is the legal effect of a final adoption decree on parental rights?

    It permanently terminates the legal rights and duties of the biological parents and creates a full legal parent-child relationship between the adoptive parents and the child, including inheritance rights.

  5. What standard must be met to involuntarily terminate parental rights?

    Clear and convincing evidence of unfitness or statutory grounds (abandonment, neglect, abuse, failure to support), plus a finding that termination serves the child's best interests (Santosky v. Kramer).

  6. Define 'domicile' and how it is acquired and changed.

    Domicile is the place a person regards as their permanent home and intends to return to. It requires (1) physical presence plus (2) intent to remain indefinitely. A new domicile is acquired only when both are present; until then, the old domicile persists.

  7. What is the traditional 'vested rights' (First Restatement) approach to choice of law?

    It applies the law of the place where the legally significant event occurred—for torts, lex loci delicti (place of injury); for contracts, lex loci contractus (place of making); using mechanical territorial rules.

  8. What is the 'most significant relationship' test of the Second Restatement?

    The court applies the law of the state with the most significant relationship to the issue, weighing contacts and policy factors (e.g., needs of the system, relevant state policies, expectations, predictability).

  9. What is 'interest analysis' (Currie) in choice of law?

    A court identifies each state's governmental policies/interests. A 'false conflict' applies the only interested state's law; a 'true conflict' generally applies forum law; an 'unprovided-for' case typically applies forum law.

  10. What is the difference between substance and procedure in conflicts, and why does it matter?

    The forum always applies its own procedural rules (e.g., evidence, court mechanics) but may apply another state's substantive law. Statutes of limitations are traditionally procedural (forum law), though many states now treat them as substantive via borrowing statutes.

  11. What are the recognized escape devices courts use to avoid an undesirable choice-of-law result?

    Characterization (substance vs. procedure), renvoi (referring to another state's whole law including its conflicts rules), and the public policy exception (refusing to apply foreign law that violates forum policy).

  12. In conflicts, which jurisdiction's law typically governs real property issues?

    The law of the situs—the place where the real property is located (lex situs) governs questions of title, conveyance, and interests in land.

  13. In conflicts, what law typically governs the validity of a contract absent a choice-of-law clause?

    Under the Second Restatement, the law of the state with the most significant relationship to the transaction and parties (place of contracting, negotiation, performance, location of subject matter, and parties' domiciles).

  14. What does the Full Faith and Credit Clause require regarding sister-state judgments?

    Each state must recognize and enforce a final, valid judgment on the merits rendered by another state's court that had proper jurisdiction, without relitigating the merits.

  15. What three requirements must a judgment meet to be entitled to full faith and credit?

    The rendering court must have had (1) proper subject-matter and personal jurisdiction, (2) the judgment must be final and on the merits, and (3) the parties must have had a fair opportunity to be heard (due process).

  16. What are the limited defenses to enforcement of a sister-state judgment?

    Lack of jurisdiction by the rendering court, the judgment was procured by extrinsic fraud, or the judgment is penal in nature. Mere errors of law or fact and public policy are NOT defenses to a sister-state judgment.

  17. How are foreign-country (international) judgments treated compared to sister-state judgments?

    They are recognized as a matter of comity (not constitutional compulsion); recognition may be refused for lack of jurisdiction, lack of due process/impartial tribunal, fraud, or violation of public policy.

  18. Under UCC Article 9, what transactions fall within its scope?

    Any transaction that creates a security interest in personal property or fixtures by contract, regardless of form, plus agricultural liens, sales of accounts/chattel paper/payment intangibles/promissory notes, and consignments.

  19. What three elements are required for a security interest to attach and become enforceable against the debtor?

    (1) Value given by the secured party, (2) the debtor has rights in the collateral, and (3) either the debtor authenticates a security agreement describing the collateral OR the secured party takes possession/control of the collateral.

  20. What is an 'after-acquired property' clause and what is the limitation on consumer goods?

    It allows a security interest to attach automatically to collateral the debtor acquires later. For consumer goods, such a clause is ineffective except for goods acquired within 10 days after the secured party gives value.

  21. What does 'perfection' of a security interest accomplish?

    Perfection gives the secured party priority rights against third parties (other creditors, buyers, the trustee in bankruptcy) by providing public notice; a security interest must first attach before it can be perfected.

  22. What are the principal methods of perfecting a security interest under Article 9?

    (1) Filing a financing statement, (2) possession of the collateral (pledge), (3) control (for deposit accounts, investment property, letter-of-credit rights), and (4) automatic perfection (e.g., a PMSI in consumer goods).

  23. What three items must a valid financing statement contain?

    (1) The debtor's name (correct legal name), (2) the name of the secured party (or representative), and (3) an indication of the collateral covered.

  24. What is a purchase money security interest (PMSI) in goods?

    A security interest taken by a seller who provides credit for the goods, or by a lender whose funds enable the debtor to acquire the goods, in those very goods (and identifiable proceeds).

  25. What is the general first-in-time priority rule among competing perfected security interests?

    The first to file or perfect (whichever is earlier) has priority. A perfected security interest generally beats an unperfected one, and an unperfected interest is subordinate to a lien creditor.

  26. What 'super-priority' does a PMSI in goods other than inventory/livestock enjoy?

    A PMSI in non-inventory goods (e.g., equipment) has priority over conflicting security interests in the same collateral if perfected within 20 days after the debtor receives possession.

  27. Upon a debtor's default, what are the secured party's primary remedies under Article 9?

    Repossess the collateral (without breach of the peace) or by judicial action, then dispose of it by a commercially reasonable public or private sale, or accept the collateral in full or partial satisfaction (strict foreclosure).

  28. What core lawyering skills does the MPT (Multistate Performance Test) assess?

    Sorting facts, analyzing legal authorities, applying law to facts, identifying and resolving ethical dilemmas, and communicating effectively in writing—performed entirely from the materials provided, without outside legal knowledge.

  29. On the MPT, what are the two sets of materials provided, and what does each contain?

    The 'File' contains the case-specific documents (task memo, transcripts, correspondence, pleadings, notes). The 'Library' contains the legal authorities (cases, statutes, regulations, rules) needed—some may be irrelevant or distracting.

  30. What are common MPT task types a candidate may be asked to produce?

    Persuasive briefs or motions, objective memoranda, opinion/demand letters to clients, contract or pleading drafting, discovery plans, closing arguments, and position/settlement statements.

  31. How should a candidate manage time and format on the MPT (a 90-minute task)?

    Spend roughly the first 45 minutes reading the File and Library and outlining, the remaining 45 minutes writing; always follow the format, audience, and tone dictated by the task memo, and answer only the question asked.

Uniform Bar Examination (UBE) Family Law, Conflict of Laws, and the MPT FAQ

What is in the Uniform Bar Examination (UBE) Family Law, Conflict of Laws, and the MPT syllabus?

Uniform Bar Examination (UBE) Family Law, Conflict of Laws, and the MPT is split into 4 chapters: Family Law, Conflict of Laws, Secured Transactions and The Multistate Performance Test (MPT). Together they contain 14 topics and 42 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in Uniform Bar Examination (UBE) Family Law, Conflict of Laws, and the MPT?

4 chapters, containing 14 topics and 42 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Family Law, with 4 topics.

Are there flashcards for Uniform Bar Examination (UBE) Family Law, Conflict of Laws, and the MPT?

Yes — a 51-card Family Law, Conflict of Laws, and the MPT deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.