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SMLE Surgery Syllabus
The Surgery syllabus for SMLE in full: 2 chapters and 6 topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Surgery flashcards with answers.
Surgery syllabus: all 2 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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General Surgery
3 topics- Preoperative Care
- Postoperative Care
- Wound Healing
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Trauma
3 topics- Head Injury
- Chest Trauma
- Abdominal Trauma
SMLE Surgery flashcards — 50 questions with answers
What is the target fasting time before elective surgery under ASA guidelines for clear liquids and for solid food/heavy meals?
Clear liquids: stop $\geq 2$ hours before. Light meal/non-human milk: $\geq 6$ hours. Fatty/fried foods and heavy meals: $\geq 8$ hours. Breast milk: $\geq 4$ hours.
List the ASA Physical Status Classification (I-VI) used for preoperative risk assessment.
ASA I: normal healthy patient. ASA II: mild systemic disease. ASA III: severe systemic disease (not incapacitating). ASA IV: severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. ASA V: moribund, not expected to survive without surgery. ASA VI: brain-dead organ donor. Suffix 'E' denotes emergency.
Which cardiac risk index is commonly used preoperatively, and name its 6 predictors?
Revised Cardiac Risk Index (RCRI/Lee index). Predictors: (1) high-risk surgery, (2) ischemic heart disease, (3) history of congestive heart failure, (4) cerebrovascular disease, (5) insulin-dependent diabetes, (6) preoperative creatinine $> 2\,\text{mg/dL}$ ($177\,\mu\text{mol/L}$).
When should long-acting antiplatelet/anticoagulant agents typically be stopped before major elective surgery?
Clopidogrel: stop ~5-7 days before. Aspirin: often continued for cardiac patients, otherwise stop ~7 days. Warfarin: stop ~5 days before (bridge with heparin if high thrombotic risk); target INR $< 1.5$. DOACs: stop 1-2 days (up to 3-4 with renal impairment).
How should metformin and insulin be managed on the day of surgery?
Metformin: hold on the day of surgery (risk of lactic acidosis, especially with contrast/renal impairment). Long-acting insulin: give a reduced dose (~50-80%). Short-acting insulin: hold while fasting; monitor glucose and use sliding scale/dextrose infusion as needed.
What perioperative steroid coverage is needed for a patient on chronic glucocorticoids?
Patients on chronic steroids (>3 weeks of prednisone $\geq 5\,\text{mg/day}$) risk adrenal crisis; give stress-dose hydrocortisone (e.g., $100\,\text{mg}$ IV at induction, then $50\,\text{mg}$ every 8 hours) tapered postoperatively based on surgical magnitude.
What are the three phases of wound healing and their approximate time frames?
1) Inflammatory (hemostasis + inflammation): day 0 to ~3-5. 2) Proliferative (fibroplasia, angiogenesis, epithelialization, granulation): day ~4 to 3 weeks. 3) Remodeling/maturation (collagen cross-linking, type III $\to$ type I): 3 weeks up to 1 year or more.
What is the difference between primary, secondary, and tertiary (delayed primary) wound closure?
Primary intention: clean wound edges approximated immediately (sutures/staples), minimal scarring. Secondary intention: wound left open to heal by granulation, contraction, and epithelialization (contaminated/tissue loss). Tertiary/delayed primary: wound left open initially, then closed after several days once infection risk falls.
What is the tensile strength of a healing wound at 1 week, 3 weeks, and at maximum (remodeling)?
At ~1 week: roughly $3\%$ of original strength. At ~3 weeks: about $20\%$. Peak at ~3 months and beyond: about $70\text{-}80\%$ of unwounded skin strength (never regains $100\%$).
Which collagen type predominates early versus late in wound healing?
Type III collagen predominates early (granulation tissue/proliferative phase). During remodeling it is replaced by stronger type I collagen, shifting the type I : type III ratio back toward the normal ~4:1.
List key local and systemic factors that impair wound healing.
Local: infection, ischemia/poor perfusion, foreign body, tension, radiation, hematoma. Systemic: diabetes, malnutrition (protein, vitamin C, zinc deficiency), smoking, corticosteroids/immunosuppression, advanced age, uremia, jaundice, chemotherapy.
Differentiate a hypertrophic scar from a keloid.
Hypertrophic scar: raised scar confined within the original wound borders, often regresses over time, follows tension lines. Keloid: overgrowth extending beyond the original wound margins, does not regress, common in darker skin and earlobes/sternum, high recurrence after excision.
What vitamin deficiency specifically impairs collagen cross-linking, and by what mechanism?
Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) deficiency. Vitamin C is a cofactor for prolyl and lysyl hydroxylase; without it, collagen cannot be properly hydroxylated/cross-linked, causing weak wounds and scurvy.
How is a surgical wound classified by contamination (CDC classes I-IV)?
Class I Clean (no inflammation, respiratory/GI/GU tracts not entered) ~$1\text{-}2\%$ infection. Class II Clean-contaminated (controlled entry of a tract). Class III Contaminated (open fresh trauma, major spillage, non-purulent inflammation). Class IV Dirty/infected (established infection or perforated viscus).
What defines the Glasgow Coma Scale, its component point ranges, and total range?
GCS = Eye + Verbal + Motor. Eye opening: 1-4. Verbal response: 1-5. Motor response: 1-6. Total range: $3$ (worst) to $15$ (normal). Minimum in each category is 1, never 0.
How is head injury severity classified by GCS score?
Mild: GCS $13\text{-}15$. Moderate: GCS $9\text{-}12$. Severe: GCS $\leq 8$ (indication for definitive airway/intubation).
Contrast the CT appearance and typical cause of epidural versus subdural hematoma.
Epidural (extradural): biconvex/lentiform, does not cross suture lines; classically arterial from middle meningeal artery after temporal bone fracture; lucid interval then deterioration. Subdural: crescent-shaped, crosses suture lines; venous from bridging veins; common in elderly/alcoholics on anticoagulants.
What is the Monro-Kellie doctrine and how does it relate to intracranial pressure?
The cranium is a fixed volume containing brain, blood, and CSF: $V_{brain} + V_{blood} + V_{CSF} = \text{constant}$. An increase in any component (or a mass) must be offset by a decrease in another; once compensation is exhausted, ICP rises sharply.
Write the formula for cerebral perfusion pressure and state the target values.
$$CPP = MAP - ICP$$ Target $CPP \geq 60\,\text{mmHg}$; keep ICP $< 20\text{-}22\,\text{mmHg}$. MAP is mean arterial pressure and ICP is intracranial pressure.
What is Cushing's triad and what does it indicate?
Hypertension (widened pulse pressure), bradycardia, and irregular/abnormal respirations. It is a late sign of raised intracranial pressure and impending brain herniation, reflecting a brainstem response.
Show the other 30 Surgery flashcards
State the mean arterial pressure formula and calculate MAP for BP $120/60$.
$$MAP = DBP + \tfrac{1}{3}(SBP - DBP)$$ For $120/60$: $MAP = 60 + \tfrac{1}{3}(120-60) = 60 + 20 = 80\,\text{mmHg}$.
What are the initial ICP-lowering measures in acute head injury?
Elevate head of bed to $30^\circ$, keep head midline, ensure adequate oxygenation and normocapnia ($PaCO_2 \approx 35\text{-}40\,\text{mmHg}$), avoid hypotension, sedation/analgesia, osmotherapy (mannitol $0.25\text{-}1\,\text{g/kg}$ or hypertonic saline), and treat seizures. Hyperventilation only as temporary rescue.
What are the immediately life-threatening chest injuries identified in the primary survey (ATLS)?
The 'lethal six'/primary survey threats: airway obstruction, tension pneumothorax, open pneumothorax, massive hemothorax, flail chest (with pulmonary contusion), and cardiac tamponade.
Describe the classic signs of tension pneumothorax and its immediate management.
Signs: severe dyspnea, hypotension, distended neck veins, tracheal deviation away from the affected side, absent breath sounds and hyperresonance on the affected side. Management: immediate needle decompression (2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line, or 4th-5th ICS anterior axillary line) followed by chest tube.
How is massive hemothorax defined and what triggers thoracotomy?
Massive hemothorax = $> 1500\,\text{mL}$ blood initially, or $\geq 200\,\text{mL/hr}$ for $2\text{-}4$ hours via chest tube. It requires large-bore chest tube drainage plus surgical thoracotomy for ongoing bleeding and volume resuscitation.
What is Beck's triad, and which chest injury does it indicate?
Beck's triad = hypotension, muffled/distant heart sounds, and distended neck veins (raised JVP). It indicates cardiac tamponade; pulsus paradoxus may also be present. Management: pericardiocentesis or pericardial window/thoracotomy.
Define flail chest and its principal cause of hypoxia.
Flail chest = $\geq 2$ adjacent ribs fractured in $\geq 2$ places, producing a free segment with paradoxical movement. The main cause of hypoxia is the underlying pulmonary contusion, not just the paradoxical motion; treat with analgesia, O$_2$, and ventilatory support as needed.
What is the difference between open and closed pneumothorax, and how is an open ('sucking') chest wound initially managed?
Closed: air in pleural space, chest wall intact. Open: full-thickness chest wall defect communicating with pleura ('sucking chest wound'). Initial management: three-sided occlusive dressing (flutter-valve effect) then definitive chest tube; converting to full seal risks tension pneumothorax.
What regions define the anatomical borders of the abdomen relevant to trauma assessment?
Anterior abdomen: costal margins to inguinal ligaments, between anterior axillary lines. Flank: between anterior and posterior axillary lines (6th ICS to iliac crest). Back: posterior to posterior axillary lines. The thoracoabdominal region (nipple line/4th ICS to costal margin) may involve both chest and abdomen.
Which two solid organs are most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma?
The spleen (most common in blunt trauma) and the liver. Both can cause significant intraperitoneal hemorrhage and are key targets of FAST and CT evaluation.
What does FAST examine and what are its four standard windows?
FAST (Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma) detects free intraperitoneal/pericardial fluid. Four windows: right upper quadrant (Morison's pouch/hepatorenal), left upper quadrant (splenorenal), pelvis (pouch of Douglas/rectovesical), and pericardial (subxiphoid). eFAST adds bilateral thoracic views for pneumo/hemothorax.
In hemodynamically unstable blunt abdominal trauma, what does a positive FAST indicate?
A positive FAST (free fluid) in an unstable patient indicates intraperitoneal hemorrhage and is an indication for emergency laparotomy without waiting for CT.
When is CT versus laparotomy versus DPL preferred in abdominal trauma?
Hemodynamically stable: CT abdomen/pelvis with contrast (most sensitive for solid organ and retroperitoneal injury). Unstable with positive FAST: immediate laparotomy. DPL (diagnostic peritoneal lavage) is largely replaced by FAST but may be used when ultrasound is unavailable/equivocal.
What are the four ATLS classes of hemorrhagic shock by percent blood volume lost?
Class I: $< 15\%$ ($<750\,\text{mL}$), normal vitals. Class II: $15\text{-}30\%$ ($750\text{-}1500\,\text{mL}$), tachycardia, narrowed pulse pressure. Class III: $30\text{-}40\%$ ($1500\text{-}2000\,\text{mL}$), hypotension, altered mental status. Class IV: $> 40\%$ ($>2000\,\text{mL}$), life-threatening, lethargy.
What is the ABCDE sequence of the ATLS primary survey?
A: Airway with cervical spine protection. B: Breathing and ventilation. C: Circulation with hemorrhage control. D: Disability (neurologic status, GCS, pupils). E: Exposure/environment (undress, prevent hypothermia).
Which physical signs on abdominal exam mandate laparotomy in trauma?
Peritonitis (guarding, rebound, rigidity), evisceration, hemodynamic instability with positive FAST/peritoneal signs, free air on imaging, blood from NG tube or rectum, and gunshot wounds that penetrate the peritoneum.
What is the recommended crystalloid strategy and blood ratio in trauma resuscitation?
Limit crystalloid; give balanced/warmed fluids and move early to blood products. Massive transfusion uses a balanced ratio approaching $1{:}1{:}1$ of packed red cells, fresh frozen plasma, and platelets. Permissive hypotension may be targeted until hemorrhage control in penetrating trauma.
Define atelectasis as a postoperative complication and its typical timing.
Atelectasis is collapse of alveoli, the most common cause of fever in the first $24\text{-}48$ hours postoperatively. Managed with incentive spirometry, deep breathing, early mobilization, and adequate analgesia.
What is the classic timeline ('the W's') for postoperative fever causes?
Wind (atelectasis/pneumonia, days 1-2), Water (UTI, days 3-5), Wound (surgical site infection, days 5-7), Walking (DVT/thrombophlebitis, days 5+), Wonder drugs / What did we do (drug fever, IV lines, day 7+).
What are the components of Virchow's triad for postoperative venous thromboembolism?
1) Venous stasis (immobility, anesthesia). 2) Endothelial injury (surgery, catheters). 3) Hypercoagulability (tissue trauma, malignancy, dehydration). All three raise DVT/PE risk; prophylaxis uses early mobilization, mechanical compression, and LMWH.
Differentiate wound dehiscence from evisceration and give a warning sign.
Dehiscence: partial or complete separation of the wound layers. Evisceration: protrusion of abdominal viscera through a full-thickness dehiscence (surgical emergency—cover with saline gauze, urgent OR). A serosanguinous ('salmon-pink') discharge from the wound often heralds impending dehiscence.
How is postoperative ileus distinguished from mechanical small bowel obstruction?
Postoperative ileus: functional, diffusely absent/reduced bowel sounds, gas throughout bowel including colon on imaging, usually resolves in 3-5 days with bowel rest. Mechanical SBO: colicky pain, high-pitched/tinkling sounds, air-fluid levels with a transition point and distal decompression; may need surgery.
What are the standard components of surgical site infection prevention (prophylactic antibiotics timing)?
Give IV prophylactic antibiotics within $60$ minutes before skin incision ($120$ min for vancomycin/fluoroquinolones), appropriate to the operative flora, redose for long procedures or major blood loss, and generally discontinue within $24$ hours postoperatively.
Define primary versus secondary hemorrhage in the postoperative period.
Primary hemorrhage: bleeding during or immediately after surgery from inadequate hemostasis. Reactionary/reactive: within 24 hours as BP normalizes and a clot/ligature dislodges. Secondary hemorrhage: 7-14 days later, usually due to infection eroding a vessel.
What is the Parkland formula for burn fluid resuscitation?
$$V = 4\,\text{mL} \times \text{weight(kg)} \times \%\text{TBSA burned}$$ Give half in the first 8 hours (from time of injury) and the remaining half over the next 16 hours, using lactated Ringer's; titrate to urine output ($0.5\text{-}1\,\text{mL/kg/hr}$).
How is Total Body Surface Area estimated using the 'Rule of Nines' in adults?
Head $9\%$, each arm $9\%$, anterior trunk $18\%$, posterior trunk $18\%$, each leg $18\%$, perineum $1\%$. The patient's palm (with fingers) approximates $1\%$ TBSA for scattered burns.
What is the difference between the raccoon eyes/Battle's sign and CSF rhinorrhea in head trauma?
Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (mastoid ecchymosis) suggest basilar skull fracture. CSF rhinorrhea/otorrhea (halo/ring sign on gauze; fluid positive for $\beta_2$-transferrin) confirms a dural tear allowing CSF leak.
What criteria (Canadian CT Head Rule concept) prompt CT imaging after minor head injury?
CT indicated if: GCS $< 15$ at 2 hours, suspected open/depressed skull fracture, signs of basilar skull fracture, $\geq 2$ episodes of vomiting, age $\geq 65$, dangerous mechanism, or amnesia $> 30$ min before impact (plus anticoagulation/coagulopathy as an additional flag).
What is the pathophysiology and management priority of a pulmonary contusion after chest trauma?
Pulmonary contusion is alveolar/interstitial hemorrhage and edema from blunt force, causing progressive hypoxia and a ventilation-perfusion mismatch over 24-48 hours. Management: oxygenation, pain control, judicious fluids (avoid overload), pulmonary toilet, and ventilatory support if respiratory failure develops.
What is 'damage control surgery' in severe abdominal/torso trauma and its physiologic rationale?
An abbreviated initial operation to control hemorrhage and contamination (packing, temporary closure) rather than definitive repair, allowing correction of the 'lethal triad' of hypothermia, acidosis, and coagulopathy in the ICU before planned re-operation.
SMLE Surgery FAQ
What is in the SMLE Surgery syllabus?
SMLE Surgery is split into 2 chapters: General Surgery and Trauma. Together they contain 6 topics.
How many chapters are in SMLE Surgery?
2 chapters, containing 6 topics. The largest chapter is General Surgery, with 3 topics.
Are there flashcards for SMLE Surgery?
Yes — a 50-card Surgery deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.