🇬🇧 RIBA Architecture Parts 1, 2 and 3 · subject
RIBA Architecture Parts 1, 2 and 3 Statutory Compliance, Building Regulations and the Planning System Syllabus
The Statutory Compliance, Building Regulations and the Planning System syllabus for RIBA Architecture Parts 1, 2 and 3 in full: 4 chapters, 17 topics and 12 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 55 Statutory Compliance, Building Regulations and the Planning System flashcards with answers.
Statutory Compliance, Building Regulations and the Planning System syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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The Planning System
5 topics- The plan-led system and policy hierarchy
- National Planning Policy Framework
- Local plans and neighbourhood plans
- Use classes and permitted development
- Making a planning application
- Outline versus full applications
- Pre-application advice and validation
- Conditions, obligations and CIL
- Section 106 agreements
- Community Infrastructure Levy
- Appeals and enforcement
- The plan-led system and policy hierarchy
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Building Regulations
4 topics- The Building Act and the regulatory regime
- The Approved Documents (Parts A to S)
- Part A structure and Part B fire safety
- Part L energy and Part M access
- Building control routes and inspections
- Local authority versus approved inspector
- Competence and the building safety regime
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Fire Safety and the Building Safety Act
4 topics- Means of escape and compartmentation
- The Building Safety Act 2022
- Higher-risk buildings and gateways
- The golden thread of information
- Dutyholders and the principal designer role
- Cladding, external walls and remediation
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Heritage, Access and Other Statutory Duties
4 topics- Listed buildings and conservation areas
- Listed building consent
- Inclusive design and the Equality Act
- Party Wall etc. Act 1996
- Rights to light and boundary law
- Listed buildings and conservation areas
RIBA Architecture Parts 1, 2 and 3 Statutory Compliance, Building Regulations and the Planning System flashcards — 55 questions with answers
What does the term "plan-led system" mean in the context of English town planning?
It is the principle (set out in s.38(6) of the Planning and Compulsory Purchase Act 2004) that planning applications must be determined in accordance with the development plan unless material considerations indicate otherwise. The development plan therefore takes primacy in decision-making.
What is the policy hierarchy of English planning documents, from national to local?
National Planning Policy Framework (NPPF) and National Planning Practice Guidance at the top, then the statutory Development Plan (Local Plans and any Neighbourhood Plans), then Supplementary Planning Documents. National policy is a material consideration; the development plan is the statutory starting point.
What is the legal status of the National Planning Policy Framework (NPPF)?
It is national policy, not legislation. It is a material consideration in planning decisions but does not override the statutory development plan; it carries a presumption in favour of sustainable development.
Define "material consideration" in planning law.
A consideration genuinely connected to the use and development of land that a decision-maker may lawfully take into account, e.g. design, amenity, highway safety, NPPF policy. It must be planning-related; personal circumstances and loss of property value are generally not material.
Which legislation governs the Use Classes Order in England, and which Order is current?
The Town and Country Planning (Use Classes) Order 1987 as amended, most significantly by the 2020 amendments which introduced Class E.
What does Use Class E (Commercial, Business and Service) encompass?
A broad class introduced in September 2020 covering shops, restaurants/cafes, financial/professional services, indoor sport/gyms, medical/health services, creches, offices, research and development, and light industry. Movement between these uses does not require planning permission.
List the principal sui generis uses that fall outside the Use Classes Order.
Sui generis ("of its own kind") uses include pubs/drinking establishments, hot food takeaways, cinemas, live music venues, theatres, casinos, petrol stations, scrapyards, hostels, and waste disposal facilities. Each change to/from them generally needs planning permission.
What is "permitted development" (PD)?
Development granted planning permission nationally through the General Permitted Development Order (GPDO), so no application to the local authority is required, subject to limits and conditions. Some PD rights require a prior approval application.
What can remove or restrict permitted development rights?
An Article 4 Direction (made by the local authority), a planning condition on an existing permission, Conservation Area or Listed Building status, and location within designated land such as National Parks or AONBs.
What are the two main routes to obtaining planning permission and what is a third confirmatory option?
Full planning permission and outline planning permission (with reserved matters to follow). A third route is a Lawful Development Certificate (LDC) confirming existing or proposed use/development is lawful.
What are the "reserved matters" that can follow an outline planning permission?
Access, appearance, landscaping, layout and scale. Outline permission establishes the principle of development; reserved matters approve the detail.
What is the statutory determination period for a major planning application versus other applications?
13 weeks for major applications (and EIA development 16 weeks) and 8 weeks for all other (minor/householder) applications, unless an extension of time is agreed.
What is a Design and Access Statement and when is it required?
A document explaining the design principles and how access for all users has been considered. It is required for major development and for most development in Conservation Areas/affecting listed buildings; not normally needed for minor householder development outside designated areas.
What are the statutory tests that a planning condition must meet (the "six tests")?
A condition must be: (1) necessary, (2) relevant to planning, (3) relevant to the development permitted, (4) enforceable, (5) precise, and (6) reasonable in all other respects (per NPPF and Circular guidance).
What is a section 106 agreement (planning obligation)?
A legally binding obligation under s.106 of the Town and Country Planning Act 1990 between a developer and the local authority to mitigate the impact of development, e.g. affordable housing, education or transport contributions. It must be necessary, directly related and fairly related in scale to the development.
What is the Community Infrastructure Levy (CIL)?
A non-negotiable, fixed-rate charge (set per square metre by a local charging schedule) levied on most new development to fund infrastructure. Unlike s.106 it is a tariff, not a negotiated obligation, and is index-linked.
State the basic formula by which a CIL charge is calculated.
$\text{CIL} = R \times A \times \frac{BCIS_p}{BCIS_c}$, where $R$ is the levy rate (£/m²), $A$ is the net additional chargeable floor area in m², and the final term indexes the rate using the BCIS index at the year of the planning permission ($p$) over the index at the year the charging schedule took effect ($c$).
What is the deadline for lodging a planning appeal against refusal of a householder application versus a major application?
Householder appeals must be lodged within 12 weeks of the decision; most other appeals (including major) must be lodged within 6 months of the decision date.
What are the three procedures available for determining a planning appeal?
Written representations (most common, used for simpler cases), informal hearing (round-table discussion), and public inquiry (formal, with advocates and cross-examination, for the most complex/contentious cases). Appeals go to the Planning Inspectorate.
What is an Enforcement Notice and what is the usual time limit for taking enforcement action?
A notice requiring a breach of planning control to be remedied. Under the Levelling-up and Regeneration Act 2023 the limit is generally 10 years for all breaches in England (previously 4 years for operational development/change to a single dwelling and 10 years for other changes of use).
Show the other 35 Statutory Compliance, Building Regulations and the Planning System flashcards
Distinguish a Stop Notice from a Breach of Condition Notice in planning enforcement.
A Stop Notice (or Temporary Stop Notice) requires an activity to cease quickly, accompanying an enforcement notice; a Breach of Condition Notice (BCN) is served for non-compliance with a planning condition and carries no right of appeal.
What is the principal Act underpinning building control in England and Wales?
The Building Act 1984, which is the enabling statute under which the Building Regulations are made and which sets out building control powers, enforcement, and dangerous structures provisions.
What are the "Building Regulations" and what document interprets them?
Statutory regulations (currently the Building Regulations 2010) made under the Building Act 1984 setting functional requirements for building work. They are interpreted by the Approved Documents, which give practical guidance on compliance.
Are the Approved Documents mandatory?
No. They provide practical guidance on ways to comply with the Building Regulations. Following them creates a rebuttable presumption of compliance, but designers may demonstrate compliance by other means; only the Regulations themselves are mandatory.
Match the Approved Document letters A, B, K, M and S to their subjects.
A = Structure; B = Fire safety; K = Protection from falling, collision and impact; M = Access to and use of buildings; S = Infrastructure for charging electric vehicles.
What do Approved Documents L, F and O cover, and how do they relate?
L = Conservation of fuel and power (energy/thermal); F = Ventilation; O = Overheating (mitigating excess solar gain in residential buildings). They are read together as energy efficiency, fresh-air provision and overheating risk are interdependent.
What do Approved Documents Part A to Part S represent as a set?
They are the full series of technical guidance parts: A Structure, B Fire safety, C Site/moisture, D Toxic substances, E Sound, F Ventilation, G Sanitation/hot water/water efficiency, H Drainage, J Combustion appliances, K Protection from falling, L Fuel/power, M Access, O Overheating, P Electrical safety, Q Security, R Communications, S EV charging (no I, N, or full T).
What are the two routes for building control supervision in England since the Building Safety Act reforms?
Local authority building control, or the Building Safety Regulator (BSR) acting as building control authority for higher-risk buildings. Private Approved Inspectors were replaced by "Registered Building Control Approvers" (RBCAs) employing Registered Building Inspectors.
What are the two traditional notification methods to a local authority for non-higher-risk building work?
A Full Plans application (plans deposited and checked/approved in advance, giving more certainty) or a Building Notice (no detailed plans checked beforehand, suitable for minor domestic work; not available for higher-risk buildings).
What are the key statutory inspection stages typically notified to building control?
Commencement, excavation of foundations, foundation concrete, oversite/damp-proof course, drains (before covering) and on completion. Inspections verify the work conforms to the Regulations before stages are covered up.
What is the Building Safety Regulator (BSR) and where does it sit?
The regulator established by the Building Safety Act 2022, sitting within the Health and Safety Executive (HSE). It oversees the safety of higher-risk buildings, the new building control regime, and the competence of the built-environment professions.
Define a "Higher-Risk Building" (HRB) for the occupation/in-scope regime of the Building Safety Act 2022.
A building at least 18 m in height or with at least 7 storeys, that contains at least 2 residential units (or is a care home/hospital in the design and construction phase). The 18 m / 7 storey threshold is the key memorised figure.
What are the "three gateways" introduced for higher-risk buildings?
Gateway 1: at planning stage (fire safety considerations). Gateway 2: before construction begins (BSR approval of design, a hard stop). Gateway 3: at completion before occupation (BSR issues completion certificate). They create defined hold points overseen by the BSR.
What is the principle of "means of escape" in fire safety design?
Provision of safe routes for occupants to evacuate from any point in a building to a place of safety (final exit) without external assistance, within an acceptable travel distance and time, protected from fire and smoke. Governed by Approved Document B.
Define "compartmentation" in fire safety.
The division of a building into fire-resisting compartments using compartment walls and floors to limit the spread of fire and smoke, contain a fire at its origin, and protect escape routes. It supports the "stay put" strategy in some residential blocks.
What is the difference between a protected stair and a protected lobby?
A protected stairway is an escape stair enclosed in fire-resisting construction with self-closing fire doors; a protected lobby is a fire-resisting space between the accommodation and the stair, adding a further barrier to smoke (a "smoke lobby"), often required for firefighting or single-stair tall buildings.
What single-stair height restriction is being introduced for new residential buildings in England?
Government has confirmed that new residential buildings above 18 m should have a second staircase (a second escape stair), reflecting post-Grenfell concern over single-stair towers.
What are the three "means of escape" travel-distance concepts designers must check?
Travel distance in a single direction (dead-end), travel distance where escape is possible in more than one direction, and the overall travel distance to a storey exit/protected stair — each with maximum limits in Approved Document B that vary by use.
What landmark event prompted the Building Safety Act 2022 and the Hackitt Review?
The Grenfell Tower fire of 14 June 2017, which killed 72 people. Dame Judith Hackitt's "Building a Safer Future" review (2018) found a broken regulatory system and a "race to the bottom", leading to the Act.
What is the "golden thread" of information under the Building Safety Act?
A requirement to create and maintain accurate, up-to-date digital building information throughout a higher-risk building's life, accessible to those who need it, so safety-critical information is preserved from design through construction into occupation.
Who are the five "dutyholders" under the building safety regime during design and construction?
The Client, the Principal Designer, the Principal Contractor, Designers, and Contractors — mirroring the CDM 2015 structure but with building-safety duties. Where there is more than one designer or contractor, a Principal Designer and Principal Contractor must be appointed.
What is the role of the Principal Designer under the Building Regulations (BSA) dutyholder regime?
To plan, manage and monitor the design work during the design phase and coordinate matters relating to compliance with all relevant Building Regulations, ensuring designers are competent and information flows. It is distinct from (though may overlap with) the CDM Principal Designer for health and safety.
Under the building safety regime, who is the "Accountable Person" and what is the "Principal Accountable Person"?
The Accountable Person is the duty-holder for an occupied higher-risk building (usually the freeholder/management company) responsible for managing building safety risks. Where there is more than one, the Principal Accountable Person is the one who owns or repairs the structure/exterior and must register the building and apply for the Building Assessment Certificate.
What was the ACM cladding problem identified after Grenfell?
Aluminium Composite Material (ACM) panels with a combustible polyethylene core were used as rainscreen cladding; the polyethylene fuelled rapid external fire spread up the facade. This led to bans on combustible materials in external walls of tall residential buildings.
What is the combustible-materials ban for external walls in England?
Regulation 7(2) of the Building Regulations bans combustible materials in external walls of relevant buildings over 18 m (now extended to 11 m for some uses), requiring materials to achieve European Class A2-s1, d0 or A1. Otherwise an external wall can be tested to BS 8414.
What does an EWS1 form do?
The External Wall System 1 form is a valuation/mortgage assessment record (not a regulatory document) by which a qualified professional records whether a multi-storey building's external wall system requires remediation, to support lending decisions on flats.
What is a "listed building" and what are the grades in England?
A building of special architectural or historic interest placed on the statutory list by the Secretary of State (advised by Historic England). Grades are I (exceptional), II* (particularly important, more than special interest) and II (special interest — the majority).
What consent is needed to alter a listed building, and what does the listing protect?
Listed Building Consent (under the Planning (Listed Buildings and Conservation Areas) Act 1990) is required for demolition, alteration or extension affecting its character. Listing protects the whole building inside and out, plus structures within its curtilage; carrying out unauthorised works is a criminal offence.
What is a Conservation Area and what extra controls apply within it?
An area of special architectural or historic interest whose character it is desirable to preserve or enhance (designated by the local authority). Extra controls include Conservation Area Consent for most demolition, restrictions on permitted development, and notice requirements for works to trees.
What duty does the Equality Act 2010 place on those providing buildings and services, relevant to inclusive design?
A duty to make "reasonable adjustments" so disabled people are not placed at a substantial disadvantage, an anticipatory duty for service providers. It does not set technical dimensions — those come from Approved Document M and BS 8300 — but failure to design inclusively can be unlawful discrimination.
Distinguish "inclusive design" from mere accessibility/Part M compliance.
Inclusive design creates environments usable by everyone regardless of age, ability or background as a holistic design philosophy from the outset; Part M sets minimum technical standards (e.g. accessible WCs, ramp gradients). Compliance with Part M is a baseline, not the whole of inclusive design.
What three types of works does the Party Wall etc. Act 1996 regulate?
(1) Works to an existing party wall/structure (s.2), (2) building a new wall at or astride the boundary line (s.1), and (3) excavation within prescribed distances of a neighbour's structure (s.6) — within 3 m and below the neighbour's foundations, or within 6 m below a 45° line.
What notice periods apply under the Party Wall etc. Act 1996?
Two months' notice for works to a party wall (s.2) and one month's notice for new walls at the boundary (s.1) and for excavation (s.6). If a neighbour dissents or fails to respond within 14 days, a dispute arises and surveyors are appointed to make a Party Wall Award.
What is a "right to light" and how is it typically acquired?
An easement entitling a building's windows to a defined level of natural light, usually acquired by 20 years' uninterrupted enjoyment under the Prescription Act 1832. A new development that substantially diminishes a neighbour's established light can give rise to an injunction or damages.
What is the Waldram/50% rule of thumb used to assess actionable loss of right to light?
Light is assessed by the proportion of a room receiving adequate light (commonly one lumen, the "grumble line"). As a guide, if at least 50% of the room area remains adequately lit after the development, the loss is generally not actionable; falling below this may constitute an actionable nuisance.
RIBA Architecture Parts 1, 2 and 3 Statutory Compliance, Building Regulations and the Planning System FAQ
What is in the RIBA Architecture Parts 1, 2 and 3 Statutory Compliance, Building Regulations and the Planning System syllabus?
RIBA Architecture Parts 1, 2 and 3 Statutory Compliance, Building Regulations and the Planning System is split into 4 chapters: The Planning System, Building Regulations, Fire Safety and the Building Safety Act and Heritage, Access and Other Statutory Duties. Together they contain 17 topics and 12 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in RIBA Architecture Parts 1, 2 and 3 Statutory Compliance, Building Regulations and the Planning System?
4 chapters, containing 17 topics and 12 sub-topics. The largest chapter is The Planning System, with 5 topics.
Are there flashcards for RIBA Architecture Parts 1, 2 and 3 Statutory Compliance, Building Regulations and the Planning System?
Yes — a 55-card Statutory Compliance, Building Regulations and the Planning System deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.