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Qualified Lawyers Transfer Scheme (QLTS) Civil and Criminal Litigation Syllabus

The Civil and Criminal Litigation syllabus for Qualified Lawyers Transfer Scheme (QLTS) in full: 4 chapters, 16 topics and 11 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 59 Civil and Criminal Litigation flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
16Topics
11Sub-topics
59Flashcards

Civil and Criminal Litigation syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Civil Procedure Foundations

    4 topics
    • Overriding objective and case management
      • Tracks allocation
      • Sanctions and relief
    • Pre-action conduct and protocols
    • Starting proceedings and statements of case
      • Claim form and particulars
      • Defence and counterclaim
    • Limitation periods
  2. Interim Matters and Disclosure

    4 topics
    • Interim applications and injunctions
    • Disclosure and inspection
      • Standard disclosure
      • Privilege
    • Evidence and witness statements
    • Expert evidence in civil claims
  3. Trial, Costs and Enforcement

    4 topics
    • Trial procedure and judgment
    • Costs
      • Costs orders and budgeting
      • Part 36 offers
    • Appeals
    • Enforcement of judgments and ADR
  4. Criminal Procedure

    4 topics
    • Police powers and detention
      • Stop, search and arrest
      • Detention and questioning under PACE
    • Bail and remand
    • Allocation and sending for trial
      • Summary, either-way and indictable offences
    • Sentencing principles and procedure

Qualified Lawyers Transfer Scheme (QLTS) Civil and Criminal Litigation flashcards — 59 questions with answers

  1. What is the 'overriding objective' of the Civil Procedure Rules (CPR), as set out in CPR 1.1?

    To enable the court to deal with cases justly and at proportionate cost. This includes ensuring parties are on an equal footing, saving expense, dealing with cases proportionately, expeditiously and fairly, allotting an appropriate share of court resources, and enforcing compliance with rules and orders.

  2. Under CPR 1.1(2)(c), what five factors define dealing with a case in a way 'proportionate' to it?

    Proportionate to: (i) the amount of money involved; (ii) the importance of the case; (iii) the complexity of the issues; (iv) the financial position of each party; and the need to ensure compliance is also weighed in case management.

  3. What duty do parties owe under CPR 1.3 in relation to the overriding objective?

    The parties are required to help the court to further the overriding objective. The court must also further it by actively managing cases (CPR 1.4).

  4. List four examples of 'active case management' the court must undertake under CPR 1.4.

    Examples include: encouraging cooperation between parties; identifying the issues at an early stage; deciding promptly which issues need full investigation; encouraging ADR; fixing timetables; and giving directions to ensure the trial proceeds quickly and efficiently.

  5. What is the purpose of the Practice Direction on Pre-Action Conduct and Protocols?

    To encourage early exchange of information, enable parties to understand each other's positions, help them settle without proceedings, support proportionate management of litigation, and reduce costs. Litigation should be a last resort.

  6. What sanctions can a court impose for non-compliance with a pre-action protocol?

    The court may stay proceedings until steps are taken, order the party at fault to pay costs (sometimes on the indemnity basis), deprive a claimant of interest or award a lower rate, or order a defendant to pay interest at a higher rate (up to 10% above base rate).

  7. What are the three tracks to which civil claims may be allocated, and their normal value thresholds?

    Small claims track (generally up to £10,000); fast track (£10,000 to £25,000); intermediate track (£25,000 to £100,000, less complex); and multi-track (over £100,000 or otherwise complex).

  8. How are civil proceedings formally started under CPR 7.2?

    Proceedings are started when the court issues a claim form at the claimant's request. The claim form is issued on the date entered on it by the court.

  9. What is a 'statement of case' and what documents does it include?

    A statement of case is a formal court document setting out a party's case. It includes the claim form, particulars of claim, defence, any counterclaim (Part 20 claim), reply to defence, and any further information given under Part 18.

  10. What must every statement of case be verified by, and what is the consequence of a false statement?

    It must be verified by a statement of truth. A person who makes, or causes to be made, a false statement in a document verified by a statement of truth without an honest belief in its truth may be liable for contempt of court.

  11. What is the standard limitation period for a contract claim and for a tort claim (other than personal injury) under the Limitation Act 1980?

    Six years from the date the cause of action accrued for both simple contract claims (s5) and tort claims generally (s2). For contracts under seal/deed it is 12 years (s8).

  12. What is the limitation period for personal injury claims, and from when does it run?

    Three years, running from the later of the date the cause of action accrued or the claimant's 'date of knowledge' (Limitation Act 1980 s11). The court has a discretion to disapply this limit under s33.

  13. How does the Limitation Act 1980 s14A treat latent damage in negligence (non-personal-injury) claims?

    It gives an alternative period of three years from the date of knowledge of the material facts, subject to a long-stop of 15 years from the negligent act or omission (s14B).

  14. What is an interim application and at what stage of proceedings is it made?

    An interim (interlocutory) application is an application made to the court for an order or directions before the final determination of the claim, governed by CPR Part 23, e.g. for summary judgment, an interim injunction, or specific disclosure.

  15. What are the two limbs of the test for summary judgment under CPR 24.3?

    The court may give summary judgment if (i) the claimant/defendant has no real prospect of succeeding on/defending the claim or issue, AND (ii) there is no other compelling reason why the case should be disposed of at trial.

  16. What are the 'American Cyanamid' guidelines for granting an interim injunction?

    (1) Is there a serious question to be tried? (2) Would damages be an adequate remedy for the claimant? (3) Would the cross-undertaking in damages adequately compensate the defendant? (4) Where does the balance of convenience lie? (5) Preserve the status quo if balance is even.

  17. What is a 'cross-undertaking in damages' required of an applicant for an interim injunction?

    An undertaking by the applicant to compensate the respondent for any loss caused by the injunction if it later turns out the injunction should not have been granted (i.e. the applicant fails at trial).

  18. What is a freezing injunction (formerly Mareva injunction) and what must an applicant typically show?

    An order restraining a party from disposing of or dealing with assets to frustrate enforcement of a judgment. The applicant must show a good arguable case on the merits and a real risk that assets will be dissipated.

  19. What is a search order (formerly Anton Piller order) under s7 Civil Procedure Act 1997?

    An order permitting the applicant's representatives to enter the respondent's premises to search for, copy and remove documents or material, to prevent destruction of evidence. It is a draconian remedy granted without notice in strong cases.

  20. What is the meaning of 'disclosure' under CPR 31.2?

    A party discloses a document by stating that the document exists or has existed. It is distinct from 'inspection', which is the right of the other party to actually see/copy the disclosed document.

Show the other 39 Civil and Criminal Litigation flashcards
  1. What documents must be disclosed under 'standard disclosure' (CPR 31.6)?

    (a) The documents on which a party relies; (b) documents which adversely affect his own case, adversely affect another party's case, or support another party's case; and (c) documents he is required to disclose by a relevant practice direction.

  2. What is the duty to conduct a 'reasonable search' for documents, and what factors affect its extent (CPR 31.7)?

    A party must make a reasonable search for documents falling within standard disclosure. Relevant factors: the number of documents involved, the nature and complexity of the proceedings, the ease and expense of retrieval, and the significance of any document likely to be found.

  3. On what two main grounds may a party claim the right to withhold inspection of a disclosed document (privilege)?

    Legal professional privilege - comprising (i) legal advice privilege (confidential lawyer-client communications for legal advice) and (ii) litigation privilege (communications with lawyers or third parties whose dominant purpose is litigation). Also 'without prejudice' communications and public interest immunity.

  4. What is the difference between legal advice privilege and litigation privilege?

    Legal advice privilege protects confidential communications between lawyer and client for the purpose of giving/receiving legal advice (no litigation needed). Litigation privilege protects communications with third parties whose dominant purpose is conducting pending or contemplated litigation.

  5. What is the function of a witness statement in civil proceedings under CPR Part 32?

    A witness statement sets out, in the witness's own words, the evidence they would give orally at trial. It stands as the witness's evidence in chief and must be verified by a statement of truth.

  6. What is a 'Civil Evidence Act notice' and when is it required?

    A notice under the Civil Evidence Act 1995 / CPR 33.2 given to other parties where a party intends to rely on hearsay evidence, allowing them to investigate and challenge its weight (e.g. by requiring the maker to be called for cross-examination).

  7. What is the overriding duty of an expert witness in civil proceedings under CPR 35.3?

    It is the expert's duty to help the court on matters within their expertise. This duty overrides any obligation to the person from whom the expert has received instructions or by whom they are paid.

  8. Can expert evidence be adduced freely in civil claims? State the rule in CPR 35.4.

    No. Expert evidence is restricted to that which is reasonably required to resolve the proceedings, and no party may call an expert or put in an expert report without the court's permission.

  9. What is a 'single joint expert' (SJE) and when might the court direct one?

    An expert instructed to prepare a report for two or more parties jointly (CPR 35.7). The court may direct an SJE, particularly on the fast/intermediate track or where the issue is not central, to save costs and avoid duplication.

  10. What is the standard order of events at a civil trial?

    Claimant's opening, claimant's evidence (witnesses examined, cross-examined, re-examined), defendant's evidence, closing speeches (defendant then claimant), then judgment. The claimant generally bears the burden and goes first.

  11. What standard of proof applies in civil litigation?

    The balance of probabilities - the claimant must prove that their version of events is more likely than not (i.e. greater than 50%) to be true.

  12. What is the general rule on costs at the end of a civil trial (CPR 44.2)?

    Costs are in the discretion of the court, but the general rule is that the unsuccessful party will be ordered to pay the costs of the successful party ('costs follow the event'). The court may make a different order considering conduct and offers.

  13. What is the difference between the 'standard basis' and 'indemnity basis' of costs assessment?

    On the standard basis, costs must be proportionate and reasonable, with doubt resolved in favour of the paying party. On the indemnity basis, proportionality does not apply and doubt is resolved in favour of the receiving party (a more generous award).

  14. What is a Part 36 offer and what are its key costs consequences if a claimant beats it at trial?

    A formal settlement offer under CPR Part 36. If a defendant fails to beat a claimant's Part 36 offer at trial, the claimant may receive: indemnity-basis costs from expiry of the relevant period, enhanced interest (up to 10% above base), and an additional amount (10% of damages up to £500,000, then 5%).

  15. What are the costs consequences if a claimant fails to beat the defendant's Part 36 offer at trial?

    The claimant is normally ordered to pay the defendant's costs from the date the relevant period expired, plus interest on those costs, even though the claimant 'won' the case overall.

  16. What is a costs budget and which regime governs it?

    A costs budget is a document (Precedent H) setting out a party's estimated costs for each phase of litigation, required in multi-track cases under the costs management regime (CPR Part 3 Section II). The court may approve budgets and an approved budget controls recoverable costs.

  17. What permission is generally required to appeal, and what is the test for granting it (CPR 52.6)?

    Permission to appeal is required. It may be granted only where the court considers the appeal has a real prospect of success, or there is some other compelling reason for the appeal to be heard.

  18. On what two grounds may an appeal be allowed under CPR 52.21(3)?

    An appeal will be allowed where the decision of the lower court was (a) wrong (in law, fact, or exercise of discretion), or (b) unjust because of a serious procedural or other irregularity in the lower court proceedings.

  19. Is an appeal generally a rehearing or a review? State the rule.

    Under CPR 52.21, an appeal is generally limited to a review of the lower court's decision, not a rehearing, unless a practice direction provides otherwise or the court considers it in the interests of justice to hold a rehearing. New evidence is admitted only exceptionally (Ladd v Marshall).

  20. Name four common methods of enforcing a money judgment in the civil courts.

    Taking control of goods (writ/warrant of control via enforcement agents); third party debt order (freezing a debt owed to the debtor, e.g. a bank account); charging order over land/securities; and attachment of earnings order. An order to obtain information from the debtor assists enforcement.

  21. What is a charging order and how is the debt ultimately realised?

    A charging order imposes a security charge on the judgment debtor's property (e.g. land or shares) for the judgment sum. The creditor may then apply for an order for sale of the charged property to realise the debt.

  22. What is a third party debt order and a common example of its use?

    An order requiring a third party who owes money to the judgment debtor to pay that money directly to the judgment creditor instead. A common example is freezing and then directing payment from the debtor's bank account.

  23. What are the main forms of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)?

    Mediation (a neutral facilitates negotiation, non-binding until agreed); arbitration (a binding decision by an arbitrator); conciliation; early neutral evaluation; and expert determination. Mediation is the most commonly encouraged form.

  24. What costs consequences may follow an unreasonable refusal to engage in ADR (Halsey/PGF II)?

    A successful party who unreasonably refuses to mediate (including silently ignoring a serious invitation, per PGF II) may be penalised in costs, e.g. by being deprived of some or all of its costs despite winning.

  25. Under PACE 1984, what is the maximum period a person may be detained without charge before a magistrates' court warrant of further detention is needed?

    Generally 24 hours from the 'relevant time'. This may be extended to 36 hours by a superintendent (for an indictable offence), and up to a maximum of 96 hours with successive warrants of further detention from a magistrates' court.

  26. What are 'PACE Code C' review requirements for a detained suspect's continued detention?

    Detention must be reviewed by a review officer (an inspector not involved in the investigation): the first review within 6 hours of detention being authorised, and subsequent reviews at intervals of no more than 9 hours.

  27. What conditions must be satisfied for a lawful arrest without warrant under s24 PACE 1984?

    The officer must have reasonable grounds to suspect the person is committing, has committed, or is about to commit an offence, AND reasonable grounds to believe the arrest is necessary (e.g. to ascertain name/address, prevent harm, allow prompt investigation, prevent prosecution being hindered).

  28. What is the general statutory presumption regarding bail under the Bail Act 1976?

    There is a general right to (presumption in favour of) bail under s4 of the Bail Act 1976. Bail may be refused only where one or more statutory exceptions in Schedule 1 apply.

  29. State three of the main grounds in the Bail Act 1976 for refusing bail to a defendant charged with an imprisonable offence.

    Substantial grounds to believe the defendant would, if released: (1) fail to surrender to custody; (2) commit further offences while on bail; or (3) interfere with witnesses or otherwise obstruct the course of justice.

  30. What factors does the court consider when deciding whether the Bail Act exceptions apply?

    Under Sch 1 para 9: the nature and seriousness of the offence and likely sentence; the defendant's character, antecedents, associations and community ties; record on previous grants of bail; and the strength of the evidence.

  31. What is the classification of criminal offences by mode of trial?

    Summary-only offences (tried only in the magistrates' court); either-way offences (triable in either the magistrates' court or the Crown Court); and indictable-only offences (tried only in the Crown Court, e.g. murder, robbery, rape).

  32. For an either-way offence, what is the 'plea before venue' and 'allocation' procedure?

    The defendant first indicates a plea (plea before venue). If guilty, the magistrates proceed to sentence or commit for sentence. If not guilty/no indication, the court conducts allocation: deciding if its sentencing powers are adequate; if it accepts jurisdiction the defendant may still elect Crown Court trial.

  33. How are indictable-only offences dealt with in the magistrates' court?

    Under s51 Crime and Disorder Act 1998 the magistrates' court 'sends' the case forthwith to the Crown Court for trial, without considering the evidence (no committal). Related either-way and summary offences may be sent at the same time.

  34. What are the five statutory purposes of sentencing for adults under s57 Sentencing Act 2020?

    (a) Punishment of offenders; (b) reduction of crime (including by deterrence); (c) reform and rehabilitation of offenders; (d) protection of the public; and (e) reparation by offenders to persons affected by their offences.

  35. What is the custody threshold for imposing a custodial sentence under s230 Sentencing Act 2020?

    The court must not pass a custodial sentence unless the offence (or combination of offence and others associated with it) was so serious that neither a fine alone nor a community sentence can be justified.

  36. What maximum reductions in sentence are available for a guilty plea, and when do they apply?

    Up to one third (1/3) reduction for a plea entered at the first stage of proceedings; reducing to a maximum of one quarter (1/4) after the first stage; and a maximum of one tenth (1/10) for a plea on the day of trial (sliding scale per the Sentencing Council guideline).

  37. What two-step approach do sentencing guidelines require the court to take when assessing offence seriousness?

    Step 1: determine the offence category by assessing culpability (the offender's blameworthiness) and harm caused or risked, giving a starting point and range. Step 2: adjust within/outside the range for aggravating and mitigating factors.

  38. What standard of proof applies in criminal proceedings, and on whom does the burden generally lie?

    The prosecution must prove guilt 'beyond reasonable doubt' (so that the tribunal is sure). The legal burden generally lies on the prosecution; the defendant need only raise certain defences, with limited reverse burdens being on the balance of probabilities.

  39. What is a 'Newton hearing' in criminal sentencing?

    A hearing held after a guilty plea where the prosecution and defence disagree about the factual basis of the offence and the difference is material to sentence. The judge hears evidence and decides the factual basis on which to sentence.

Qualified Lawyers Transfer Scheme (QLTS) Civil and Criminal Litigation FAQ

What is in the Qualified Lawyers Transfer Scheme (QLTS) Civil and Criminal Litigation syllabus?

Qualified Lawyers Transfer Scheme (QLTS) Civil and Criminal Litigation is split into 4 chapters: Civil Procedure Foundations, Interim Matters and Disclosure, Trial, Costs and Enforcement and Criminal Procedure. Together they contain 16 topics and 11 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in Qualified Lawyers Transfer Scheme (QLTS) Civil and Criminal Litigation?

4 chapters, containing 16 topics and 11 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Civil Procedure Foundations, with 4 topics.

Are there flashcards for Qualified Lawyers Transfer Scheme (QLTS) Civil and Criminal Litigation?

Yes — a 59-card Civil and Criminal Litigation deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.