🇬🇧 Pupillage (Bar Vocational Stage) · subject
Pupillage (Bar Vocational Stage) Civil Litigation, Evidence and Remedies Syllabus
The Civil Litigation, Evidence and Remedies syllabus for Pupillage (Bar Vocational Stage) in full: 4 chapters, 13 topics and 20 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Civil Litigation, Evidence and Remedies flashcards with answers.
Civil Litigation, Evidence and Remedies syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
-
The Civil Procedure Rules and Case Management
3 topics- The overriding objective and the CPR framework
- Dealing with cases justly and at proportionate cost
- Court's case management powers
- Pre-action conduct and protocols
- Pre-action protocols and letters of claim
- Sanctions for non-compliance
- Tracks and allocation
- Small claims, fast, intermediate and multi-track
- Directions questionnaires and costs budgeting
- The overriding objective and the CPR framework
-
Commencing and Progressing Proceedings
4 topics- Issue and service of proceedings
- Claim forms and service rules
- Limitation periods
- Interim applications and remedies
- Summary judgment and strike out
- Interim injunctions and freezing orders
- Security for costs
- Disclosure and inspection
- Standard and extended disclosure (Disclosure Pilot legacy / PD 57AD)
- Privilege claims in disclosure
- Trial, judgment and appeals
- Issue and service of proceedings
-
The Law of Evidence in Civil Proceedings
3 topics- Relevance, admissibility and burden of proof
- Standard of proof on the balance of probabilities
- Witness and documentary evidence
- Hearsay in civil cases
- Expert evidence under CPR Part 35
- Privilege and without prejudice communications
- Relevance, admissibility and burden of proof
-
Costs and Funding
3 topics- Costs orders and the general rule
- Costs follow the event
- Indemnity vs standard basis
- Part 36 offers and their consequences
- Funding arrangements
- Conditional fee and damages-based agreements
- Qualified one-way costs shifting
- Costs orders and the general rule
Pupillage (Bar Vocational Stage) Civil Litigation, Evidence and Remedies flashcards — 50 questions with answers
What is the "overriding objective" of the Civil Procedure Rules, and where is it stated?
Stated in CPR 1.1: to enable the court to deal with cases justly and at proportionate cost. This includes ensuring parties are on an equal footing, saving expense, dealing with cases proportionately (to value, importance, complexity and the parties' financial positions), ensuring expedition and fairness, allotting an appropriate share of court resources, and enforcing compliance with rules, practice directions and orders.
Under CPR 1.3, what duty do the parties owe in relation to the overriding objective?
The parties are required to help the court to further the overriding objective. The court must seek to give effect to it when exercising any power under the rules or interpreting any rule (CPR 1.2).
What is the purpose of the Pre-Action Protocols and the Practice Direction on Pre-Action Conduct?
To encourage early exchange of information, enable parties to understand each other's position, help them settle without litigation (e.g. via ADR), support proportionate conduct, and reduce costs. Litigation should be a last resort. Non-compliance can be penalised in costs and interest.
What sanctions can a court impose for unreasonable failure to comply with a pre-action protocol?
The court may stay proceedings until steps are taken; order the party at fault to pay costs (sometimes on the indemnity basis); deprive a claimant of interest or award a lower rate; or order a defendant to pay interest at a higher rate (up to 10% above base rate).
What are the three case management tracks under the CPR, and what are their normal financial scope limits?
Small claims track: claims with a value not exceeding £10,000 (£1,000 for personal injury pain/suffering and housing disrepair). Fast track: £10,000 to £25,000. Intermediate track: £25,000 to £100,000 (for less complex claims). Multi-track: claims exceeding £100,000 or otherwise unsuitable for the other tracks.
What factors does the court consider when allocating a claim to a track (CPR 26.13)?
The financial value of the claim; the nature of the remedy sought; the likely complexity of facts, law or evidence; the number of parties; the value/complexity of any counterclaim; the amount of oral evidence; the importance to non-parties; the views and circumstances of the parties; and the trial's likely length.
What is the standard trial-length expectation that distinguishes the fast track from the multi-track?
The fast track is for cases the court considers can be disposed of in a trial lasting no longer than one day (with limited expert evidence — normally one expert per party in no more than two fields). Longer or more complex trials go to the intermediate or multi-track.
What is the difference between issue and service of a claim form, and when is a claim "brought" for limitation purposes?
Issue is when the court seals and dates the claim form, formally starting proceedings. Service is delivery of the claim form to the defendant. For limitation, a claim is "brought" when the claim form is received in the court office for issuing (delivered to the court), not when sealed.
What is the general period of validity of a claim form for service within the jurisdiction, and the deadline for service?
A claim form is valid for service for 4 months from the date of issue (6 months if served out of the jurisdiction). It must be served within that period; extensions under CPR 7.6 are restricted, especially once the period has expired.
List the permitted methods of service of a claim form within the jurisdiction under CPR 6.3.
Personal service; first-class post / DX (next-day delivery); leaving the document at a permitted address; fax or other electronic means (where the recipient has indicated willingness to accept); and any method authorised by the court.
Under the CPR "deemed service" rules, when is a claim form served by first-class post deemed served?
A claim form sent by first-class post (or another next-working-day delivery method) is deemed served on the second business day after it was posted, left with, delivered to or collected by the relevant service provider (CPR 6.14).
What is the deadline for a defendant to file an acknowledgment of service or defence after service of particulars of claim?
The defendant must respond within 14 days of service of the particulars of claim: by filing a defence, or by filing an acknowledgment of service (which extends the time for the defence to 28 days from service of the particulars). Failure can lead to default judgment.
What is an interim injunction, and what test governs whether one should be granted?
An interim injunction is a temporary court order requiring a party to do or refrain from doing something pending trial. The test from American Cyanamid v Ethicon [1975] asks: (1) is there a serious question to be tried? (2) would damages be an adequate remedy for either side? (3) where does the balance of convenience lie? (4) any special factors / preserving the status quo.
What is a freezing injunction (Mareva injunction) and what must an applicant generally show?
A freezing injunction restrains a respondent from dissipating or removing assets from the jurisdiction so as to frustrate enforcement of a judgment. The applicant must show: a good arguable case on the substantive claim, the existence of assets, and a real risk of dissipation. Full and frank disclosure is required (often made without notice).
What is a search order (Anton Piller order) and what conditions must be met?
A search order permits the applicant to enter the respondent's premises to search for, inspect and preserve evidence or property. Conditions (Anton Piller KG v Manufacturing Processes [1976]): an extremely strong prima facie case; serious actual or potential damage; clear evidence the respondent possesses incriminating items and a real possibility they will destroy them before an inter partes application.
What undertaking must an applicant for an interim injunction normally give to the court?
A cross-undertaking in damages: an undertaking to compensate the respondent (and sometimes third parties) for any loss caused by the injunction if it later turns out the injunction should not have been granted. The court may require evidence of ability to satisfy it (fortification).
What is standard disclosure under the CPR, and what categories of documents does it require?
Standard disclosure (CPR 31.6) requires a party to disclose: (a) documents on which it relies; (b) documents which adversely affect its own case; (c) documents which adversely affect another party's case; and (d) documents which support another party's case — plus documents required by a relevant practice direction.
What is the meaning of "disclosure" as distinct from "inspection" under CPR Part 31?
Disclosure (CPR 31.2) means stating that a document exists or has existed (typically via a disclosure list with a disclosure statement). Inspection (CPR 31.3) is the right of the other party to actually look at and copy a disclosed document, unless it is no longer in the disclosing party's control, is privileged, or inspection would be disproportionate.
Define a "document" for the purposes of disclosure under CPR 31.4.
A document is anything in which information of any description is recorded. This is broad — it includes paper, emails, text messages, databases, audio/video recordings, metadata and other electronic data, not just conventional paper records.
What is the standard of a reasonable search for documents, and what factors affect it (CPR 31.7)?
A party must make a reasonable and proportionate search for disclosable documents. Relevant factors: the number of documents involved; the nature and complexity of the proceedings; the ease and expense of retrieval of any particular document; and the significance of any document likely to be located during the search.
Show the other 30 Civil Litigation, Evidence and Remedies flashcards
What is the continuing duty of disclosure?
The duty of disclosure continues until the proceedings are concluded (CPR 31.11). If documents to which the duty extends come to a party's notice at any time during the proceedings, they must immediately notify every other party.
What is the general rule on the burden and standard of proof in civil proceedings?
Burden: "he who asserts must prove" — the party alleging a fact in issue generally bears the legal (persuasive) burden of proving it. Standard: the balance of probabilities, i.e. the fact is more likely than not to be true (more than 50%).
Distinguish the legal (persuasive) burden of proof from the evidential burden.
The legal burden is the obligation to prove a fact in issue to the required standard, fixed by law and decided at the end of the case. The evidential burden is the obligation to adduce sufficient evidence on an issue to make it a live question fit for the tribunal's consideration; it can shift during the trial and does not determine ultimate liability.
What is the difference between relevance and admissibility of evidence?
Relevance is a question of logic: evidence is relevant if it makes a fact in issue more or less probable. Admissibility is a question of law: whether relevant evidence is permitted to be received by the court. Evidence must be relevant to be admissible, but some relevant evidence is excluded (e.g. by privilege or an exclusionary rule).
How is hearsay evidence treated in civil proceedings under the Civil Evidence Act 1995?
Hearsay is admissible in civil proceedings and is not excluded merely because it is hearsay (s.1 Civil Evidence Act 1995). Safeguards apply: notice may be required (s.2), the other party may apply to call the maker for cross-examination (s.3), and the court weighs reliability using s.4 factors (e.g. why the original maker was not called, contemporaneity, motive to misrepresent).
How is witness evidence normally given at trial under the CPR, and what is the status of a witness statement?
A witness's written statement stands as their evidence-in-chief at trial (CPR 32.5), unless the court orders otherwise. The witness is then tendered for cross-examination. Statements must contain a statement of truth; a false statement made without honest belief in its truth may be contempt of court.
What is the function of a statement of truth, and what is the consequence of a false one?
A statement of truth verifies the honest belief in the truth of the facts in a statement of case, witness statement, or other document (CPR Part 22). Proceedings for contempt of court may be brought against a person who makes, or causes to be made, a false statement in a document verified by a statement of truth without an honest belief in its truth.
What is legal advice privilege, and what communications does it protect?
Legal advice privilege protects confidential communications between a client and their lawyer made for the dominant purpose of giving or obtaining legal advice. It applies whether or not litigation is contemplated, but does not extend to communications with third parties.
What is litigation privilege, and what are its conditions?
Litigation privilege protects confidential communications between a client or lawyer and a third party (or between client and lawyer) where: (1) litigation is in progress or reasonably in contemplation; and (2) the communication was made for the dominant purpose of that litigation (e.g. obtaining advice, evidence or information for the proceedings).
Compare legal advice privilege and litigation privilege in terms of when they apply and who they cover.
Legal advice privilege: applies at any time (no litigation needed), but only to lawyer–client communications for the dominant purpose of legal advice. Litigation privilege: requires litigation in reasonable contemplation, but extends to communications with third parties for the dominant purpose of that litigation. Both require confidentiality.
What is the "without prejudice" rule, and what is its rationale?
The without prejudice rule makes communications (oral or written) made in a genuine attempt to settle an existing dispute inadmissible as evidence of admissions against the party that made them. Its rationale is the public policy of encouraging parties to settle disputes by speaking freely in negotiations without fear their concessions will be used against them at trial.
Name three exceptions to the without prejudice rule.
Among the recognised exceptions: (1) to determine whether a binding settlement was concluded; (2) where the protection is used as a cloak for perjury, blackmail or other "unambiguous impropriety"; (3) to explain delay (e.g. on a strike-out / limitation point); (4) where the parties agree the communication is "without prejudice save as to costs" (Calderbank); and (5) rectification or estoppel arising from what was said.
What is a "without prejudice save as to costs" (Calderbank) offer?
A settlement offer that cannot be referred to during the substantive trial on liability/quantum, but may be revealed to the court on the question of costs after judgment. It allows a party to put pressure on an opponent and seek costs consequences if the opponent fails to beat the offer, in situations where a formal Part 36 offer is unavailable or unsuitable.
What is the general rule on costs at the end of proceedings (CPR 44.2)?
The general rule is that the unsuccessful party will be ordered to pay the costs of the successful party ("costs follow the event"). However, the court has a discretion to make a different order, taking into account all the circumstances, including conduct, partial success, and any admissible offers to settle.
What conduct factors may lead a court to depart from the general rule on costs?
Under CPR 44.2(4)–(5), the court considers the parties' conduct before and during proceedings (including pre-action protocol compliance), whether it was reasonable to raise/pursue particular allegations or issues, the manner of pursuing the case, whether a successful party exaggerated its claim, and any admissible offers to settle (including Calderbank offers).
Compare the standard basis and the indemnity basis of costs assessment.
Standard basis: the receiving party recovers costs that are proportionate and reasonably incurred; any doubt as to reasonableness or proportionality is resolved in favour of the paying party. Indemnity basis: costs must be reasonably incurred and reasonable in amount, doubt is resolved in favour of the receiving party, and proportionality does NOT apply — so indemnity costs are usually higher.
What is a Part 36 offer and what are its key formal requirements?
A Part 36 offer is a formal written offer to settle made under CPR Part 36 that carries automatic costs and interest consequences. It must: be in writing; state on its face that it is made pursuant to Part 36; specify a "relevant period" of not less than 21 days during which the defendant will be liable for the claimant's costs if accepted; state whether it relates to the whole or part of the claim; and state whether it takes account of any counterclaim.
What costs consequences follow when a defendant accepts a claimant's Part 36 offer within the relevant period?
On acceptance within the relevant period, the claimant is entitled to its costs of the proceedings up to the date on which notice of acceptance was served, assessed on the standard basis if not agreed (CPR 36.13). The claim is stayed on the agreed terms.
What are the consequences if a claimant fails to obtain a judgment more advantageous than a defendant's Part 36 offer?
Under CPR 36.17(3), unless unjust, the court orders the claimant to pay the defendant's costs from the expiry of the relevant period, plus interest on those costs. In effect the claimant loses its costs and pays the defendant's costs for the period after it should have accepted.
What are the consequences if a defendant fails to beat a claimant's own Part 36 offer at trial (claimant equals or betters its offer)?
Under CPR 36.17(4), unless unjust, the claimant is awarded: (a) interest on the sum awarded at up to 10% above base rate; (b) costs on the indemnity basis from the end of the relevant period; (c) interest on those costs at up to 10% above base rate; and (d) an additional amount (10% of the first £500,000 awarded and 5% of any amount above that, capped at £75,000).
How is the Part 36 "additional amount" payable to a claimant who beats its own offer calculated?
The additional amount is $10\%$ of the amount awarded up to £500,000, plus $5\%$ of any amount awarded above £500,000, subject to an overall cap of £75,000. For example, a £600,000 award gives $0.10 \times 500{,}000 + 0.05 \times 100{,}000 = £55{,}000$.
Within what period can a Part 36 offer normally be accepted, and what happens to acceptance after the relevant period expires?
A Part 36 offer can be accepted at any time (unless withdrawn), including after the relevant period, because it does not lapse automatically. If accepted after the relevant period without agreement on costs, the court will normally order the offeree to pay the offeror's costs from the end of the relevant period to the date of acceptance, while the offeror pays costs up to the end of that period.
What is a Damages-Based Agreement (DBA) and how is the lawyer's fee structured?
A DBA is a "no win, no fee" funding arrangement in which the lawyer's payment is a percentage of the sums recovered by the client. If the case is lost, no fee is payable. The recoverable percentage is capped by regulation (e.g. 25% including VAT in personal injury claims, excluding damages for future care/loss; up to 50% in most other civil claims).
What is a Conditional Fee Agreement (CFA), and is the success fee recoverable from the losing party?
A CFA is a "no win, no fee" agreement under which the lawyer charges nothing (or a reduced fee) if the case is lost, and may charge a success fee (an uplift on base costs, capped at 100%) if it is won. Since the LASPO Act 2012 reforms (April 2013), the success fee is generally NOT recoverable from the losing opponent and is paid by the client out of damages.
What is After-the-Event (ATE) insurance, and is the premium recoverable?
ATE insurance is a policy taken out after a dispute has arisen to cover a litigant's potential liability for the opponent's costs (and sometimes its own disbursements) if the claim fails. Since LASPO 2012, ATE premiums are generally NOT recoverable from the losing party (with limited exceptions, e.g. certain clinical negligence expert report premiums).
What is Qualified One-Way Costs Shifting (QOCS), and to which claims does it apply?
QOCS applies to personal injury and clinical negligence claims. It means a losing claimant is generally not required to pay the defendant's costs, protecting claimants who no longer have ATE cover after LASPO. Protection is lost in defined circumstances, such as where the claim is fundamentally dishonest, struck out as disclosing no reasonable cause of action, or an abuse of process.
What is the difference between an appeal and a review, and what is the general test for a successful appeal (CPR 52.21)?
An appeal is normally a review of the lower court's decision, not a rehearing (unless a practice direction or the court orders otherwise). The appeal court will allow an appeal where the decision was (a) wrong (in law, fact, or exercise of discretion) or (b) unjust because of a serious procedural or other irregularity in the lower court's proceedings.
What permission is generally required to appeal, and what is the test for granting it?
Permission to appeal is generally required (CPR 52.3). It may be sought from the lower court or the appeal court. Permission is granted only where the court considers the appeal would have a real prospect of success, or there is some other compelling reason for the appeal to be heard.
What is a default judgment and on what basis may a defendant apply to set it aside?
Default judgment (CPR Part 12) is judgment obtained without trial where the defendant failed to file an acknowledgment of service or a defence in time. The court must set it aside if wrongly entered (e.g. response time had not expired) and may set it aside (CPR 13.3) if the defendant has a real prospect of successfully defending the claim or there is some other good reason, taking into account whether the application was made promptly.
What is the relief from sanctions test established in Denton v TH White [2014]?
A three-stage test under CPR 3.9 for relief from sanctions: (1) identify and assess the seriousness and significance of the breach — if not serious/significant, relief is usually granted; (2) consider why the default occurred (is there a good reason?); and (3) evaluate all the circumstances of the case to deal with the application justly, giving particular weight to the need for litigation to be conducted efficiently and at proportionate cost and to enforce compliance with rules and orders.
Pupillage (Bar Vocational Stage) Civil Litigation, Evidence and Remedies FAQ
What is in the Pupillage (Bar Vocational Stage) Civil Litigation, Evidence and Remedies syllabus?
Pupillage (Bar Vocational Stage) Civil Litigation, Evidence and Remedies is split into 4 chapters: The Civil Procedure Rules and Case Management, Commencing and Progressing Proceedings, The Law of Evidence in Civil Proceedings and Costs and Funding. Together they contain 13 topics and 20 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in Pupillage (Bar Vocational Stage) Civil Litigation, Evidence and Remedies?
4 chapters, containing 13 topics and 20 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Commencing and Progressing Proceedings, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for Pupillage (Bar Vocational Stage) Civil Litigation, Evidence and Remedies?
Yes — a 50-card Civil Litigation, Evidence and Remedies deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.