🇵🇰 PMDC National Licensing Examination · subject
PMDC National Licensing Examination Obstetrics and Gynaecology Syllabus
The Obstetrics and Gynaecology syllabus for PMDC National Licensing Examination in full: 5 chapters and 16 topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Obstetrics and Gynaecology flashcards with answers.
Obstetrics and Gynaecology syllabus: all 5 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Antenatal Care and Normal Pregnancy
3 topics- Physiology of Pregnancy
- Antenatal Assessment and Screening
- Normal Labor and Delivery
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High-Risk Pregnancy
3 topics- Hypertensive Disorders of Pregnancy
- Gestational Diabetes
- Antepartum Hemorrhage
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Obstetric Emergencies
3 topics- Postpartum Hemorrhage
- Obstructed Labor
- Ectopic Pregnancy
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Gynaecological Disorders
4 topics- Abnormal Uterine Bleeding
- Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
- Fibroids and Ovarian Cysts
- Menopause
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Reproductive Health and Oncology
3 topics- Contraception and Family Planning
- Infertility
- Cervical and Endometrial Cancer
PMDC National Licensing Examination Obstetrics and Gynaecology flashcards — 51 questions with answers
What is the gestational age (in weeks) used to define a full-term pregnancy?
37 to 42 completed weeks. Pre-term is before 37 weeks; post-term is 42 weeks or beyond.
By how much does maternal plasma (blood) volume increase by term in normal pregnancy, and what is its main consequence?
Plasma volume rises by about 40-50%. Because red cell mass rises less (about 20-30%), it produces a dilutional 'physiological anaemia of pregnancy'.
How do cardiac output, heart rate, and systemic vascular resistance change in normal pregnancy?
Cardiac output rises ~30-50%, heart rate rises ~10-20 bpm, and systemic vascular resistance falls. Blood pressure dips in the second trimester then returns toward baseline at term.
What acid-base change occurs in the respiratory system during normal pregnancy?
Progesterone-driven hyperventilation increases tidal volume and minute ventilation, causing a compensated respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2, slightly raised pH with renal bicarbonate compensation).
Which hormone maintains the corpus luteum in early pregnancy, and which structure takes over progesterone production later?
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) maintains the corpus luteum; the placenta takes over progesterone production by around 7-9 weeks (luteoplacental shift).
What is Naegele's rule for estimating the expected date of delivery (EDD)?
EDD = first day of last menstrual period (LMP) minus 3 months plus 7 days (and add 1 year). Assumes a regular 28-day cycle.
When is the most accurate ultrasound measurement for dating a pregnancy, and what is measured?
First-trimester crown-rump length (CRL) between about 7 and 13 weeks is the most accurate method for dating.
What does the combined first-trimester screening test for Down syndrome measure?
Nuchal translucency on ultrasound plus maternal serum free beta-hCG and PAPP-A, combined with maternal age, performed at about 11-14 weeks.
What pattern of quadruple/triple test markers suggests Down syndrome (trisomy 21)?
Low AFP, low unconjugated estriol, high beta-hCG, and high inhibin A.
What does a raised maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) suggest?
Open neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly), abdominal wall defects, multiple pregnancy, or underestimated gestational age.
At what gestational age is the oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) routinely offered to screen for gestational diabetes?
24-28 weeks of gestation (earlier if high risk).
What are the three stages of labor?
First stage: onset of regular contractions to full cervical dilatation (10 cm). Second stage: full dilatation to delivery of the baby. Third stage: delivery of the baby to delivery of the placenta.
What distinguishes the latent from the active phase of the first stage of labor?
Latent phase: cervix dilates slowly from 0 to about 4-6 cm with effacement. Active phase: faster, more regular dilatation from about 4-6 cm to 10 cm.
What are the cardinal movements (mechanism) of labor in order?
Engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation (restitution), and expulsion.
What is the normal expected rate of cervical dilatation in the active phase of labor for a primigravida?
Traditionally about 1 cm per hour (modern data accept somewhat slower); progress slower than expected on the partogram suggests need for assessment.
What is the most common fetal presentation and the ideal position for vaginal delivery?
Cephalic (vertex) presentation is most common; the ideal is occiput-anterior (OA) position.
How is postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) defined?
Blood loss of 500 mL or more after vaginal delivery, or 1000 mL or more after caesarean section. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours, secondary PPH from 24 hours to 12 weeks postpartum.
What are the '4 Ts' causes of postpartum hemorrhage?
Tone (uterine atony - most common), Trauma (lacerations/rupture), Tissue (retained placenta/products), and Thrombin (coagulation disorders).
What is the first-line uterotonic drug for management and prophylaxis of postpartum hemorrhage due to atony?
Oxytocin. Active management of the third stage with prophylactic oxytocin is standard. Other agents: ergometrine, carboprost (prostaglandin F2-alpha), and misoprostol.
Which uterotonic is contraindicated in hypertensive women, and which is contraindicated in asthmatics?
Ergometrine is contraindicated in hypertension/pre-eclampsia; carboprost (prostaglandin F2-alpha) is contraindicated in asthma.
Show the other 31 Obstetrics and Gynaecology flashcards
How is gestational hypertension defined?
New-onset blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or higher after 20 weeks of gestation, without proteinuria or features of pre-eclampsia, in a previously normotensive woman.
What are the diagnostic criteria for pre-eclampsia?
New-onset hypertension (BP 140/90 or higher) after 20 weeks PLUS proteinuria (300 mg/24h or protein:creatinine ratio 30 mg/mmol), OR hypertension with end-organ dysfunction (renal, hepatic, neurological, haematological) or fetal growth restriction.
What features define severe pre-eclampsia?
BP 160/110 or higher, severe headache, visual disturbance, epigastric/RUQ pain, papilloedema, clonus, liver tenderness, platelets <100, abnormal LFTs, or HELLP syndrome.
What does HELLP syndrome stand for?
Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelets - a severe variant of pre-eclampsia.
What is eclampsia and what is the drug of choice for treating and preventing seizures?
Eclampsia is the occurrence of generalized seizures in a woman with pre-eclampsia. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for treatment and prevention of eclamptic seizures.
What are the signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity and the antidote?
Loss of deep tendon reflexes (earliest), respiratory depression, then cardiac arrest. Monitor reflexes, respiratory rate, and urine output. Antidote is intravenous calcium gluconate.
What antihypertensives are considered safe and commonly used in pregnancy, and which are contraindicated?
Safe: labetalol, methyldopa, nifedipine, hydralazine. Contraindicated: ACE inhibitors and ARBs (fetal renal damage), and atenolol (growth restriction).
What aspirin prophylaxis is recommended for women at high risk of pre-eclampsia?
Low-dose aspirin (75-150 mg daily) started from about 12 weeks until delivery.
How is gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) defined?
Carbohydrate intolerance with onset or first recognition during pregnancy, due to pregnancy-induced insulin resistance, in a woman not previously diabetic.
What are common WHO/IADPSG OGTT thresholds for diagnosing gestational diabetes?
Fasting glucose 5.1 mmol/L or higher, 1-hour 10.0 mmol/L or higher, or 2-hour 8.5 mmol/L or higher (after 75 g glucose). One abnormal value is sufficient.
What is the first-line management of gestational diabetes, and what medications are used if it fails?
First-line: diet and exercise. If glycaemic targets are not met, metformin and/or insulin are used. Insulin is the mainstay when needed; it does not cross the placenta.
What are the major fetal/neonatal complications of poorly controlled gestational diabetes?
Macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, polyhydramnios, neonatal hypoglycaemia, respiratory distress syndrome, and increased risk of stillbirth and congenital anomalies (the latter mainly with pre-existing diabetes).
What follow-up is advised for a woman after a pregnancy complicated by gestational diabetes?
A postpartum OGTT (usually at 6-12 weeks) to exclude persistent diabetes, and lifelong screening as she has greatly increased lifetime risk of type 2 diabetes.
How is antepartum hemorrhage (APH) defined?
Bleeding from the genital tract after 24 weeks (or after the age of fetal viability) and before delivery of the baby.
What is placenta praevia and how does it classically present?
Placenta implanted wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment, over or near the internal cervical os. Classic presentation is painless, recurrent, bright-red vaginal bleeding; the uterus is soft and non-tender.
What is placental abruption and how does it classically present?
Premature separation of a normally sited placenta. Classic presentation is painful vaginal bleeding with a tense, tender ('woody' hard) uterus; bleeding may be revealed or concealed. Risk factors include hypertension, trauma, and smoking.
Why is a digital vaginal examination contraindicated in suspected placenta praevia?
It can provoke catastrophic haemorrhage. The placenta location must first be confirmed by ultrasound; a speculum may be used cautiously but digital examination is avoided until praevia is excluded.
What is vasa praevia and why is it dangerous?
Fetal vessels run through the membranes over the cervical os, unsupported by placenta or cord. On membrane rupture they tear, causing fetal (not maternal) haemorrhage and rapid fetal exsanguination - a fetal emergency.
How is obstructed labor defined?
Failure of the presenting part to descend despite adequate uterine contractions, due to mechanical obstruction (cephalopelvic disproportion, malpresentation, fetal/maternal abnormality).
What is a pathological (Bandl's) retraction ring and what does it signify?
A visible/palpable ridge between the upper and lower uterine segments rising toward the umbilicus; it is a warning sign of obstructed labor and impending uterine rupture.
What are the classic signs of impending uterine rupture in obstructed labor?
Bandl's ring, severe continuous pain, maternal tachycardia, haematuria, a tense tender lower segment, and fetal distress. Sudden cessation of contractions with collapse signals rupture.
What is an obstetric (vesicovaginal) fistula and how does prolonged obstructed labor cause it?
An abnormal communication between bladder and vagina causing continuous urinary incontinence. Prolonged pressure of the fetal head on the bladder against the pubic symphysis causes tissue ischaemia and necrosis.
What is an ectopic pregnancy and what is the most common site?
Implantation of a pregnancy outside the uterine cavity. The most common site is the fallopian tube, specifically the ampulla.
What is the classic clinical triad of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?
Amenorrhoea (missed period), abdominal/pelvic pain, and vaginal bleeding - often with signs of shock and shoulder-tip pain if there is intraperitoneal bleeding.
What are the major risk factors for ectopic pregnancy?
Previous ectopic, pelvic inflammatory disease/tubal damage, previous tubal surgery, endometriosis, IUCD in situ, assisted reproduction, and smoking.
What medical treatment can be used for a small, unruptured, stable ectopic pregnancy?
Methotrexate (a folate-antagonist that halts trophoblast proliferation), in carefully selected stable patients with low beta-hCG and no fetal cardiac activity, followed by serial hCG monitoring.
How is abnormal uterine bleeding classified using the FIGO PALM-COEIN system?
Structural causes (PALM): Polyp, Adenomyosis, Leiomyoma, Malignancy/hyperplasia. Non-structural (COEIN): Coagulopathy, Ovulatory dysfunction, Endometrial, Iatrogenic, Not otherwise classified.
What investigation is mandatory in a woman over 45 (or younger with risk factors) presenting with abnormal uterine bleeding?
Endometrial biopsy/sampling (with transvaginal ultrasound) to exclude endometrial hyperplasia or carcinoma.
What is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and which organisms most commonly cause it?
Ascending infection of the upper female genital tract (endometritis, salpingitis, oophoritis, peritonitis). Most common organisms are Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
What is Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome?
Perihepatitis (inflammation of the liver capsule with characteristic 'violin-string' adhesions) complicating pelvic inflammatory disease, causing right upper quadrant pain.
What is the most common benign uterine tumor, and which type of fibroid most commonly causes heavy menstrual bleeding?
Uterine leiomyoma (fibroid) is the most common benign uterine tumor. Submucosal fibroids are most associated with heavy menstrual bleeding; they are estrogen-dependent and tend to regress after menopause.
PMDC National Licensing Examination Obstetrics and Gynaecology FAQ
What is in the PMDC National Licensing Examination Obstetrics and Gynaecology syllabus?
PMDC National Licensing Examination Obstetrics and Gynaecology is split into 5 chapters: Antenatal Care and Normal Pregnancy, High-Risk Pregnancy, Obstetric Emergencies, Gynaecological Disorders and Reproductive Health and Oncology. Together they contain 16 topics.
How many chapters are in PMDC National Licensing Examination Obstetrics and Gynaecology?
5 chapters, containing 16 topics. The largest chapter is Gynaecological Disorders, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for PMDC National Licensing Examination Obstetrics and Gynaecology?
Yes — a 51-card Obstetrics and Gynaecology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.