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PCAT (Pharmacy College Admission Test) Biological Processes Syllabus
The Biological Processes syllabus for PCAT (Pharmacy College Admission Test) in full: 4 chapters, 17 topics and 53 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 52 Biological Processes flashcards with answers.
Biological Processes syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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General Biology and Cell Biology
4 topics- Cell Structure and Organelles
- Prokaryotic vs. eukaryotic cells
- Plasma membrane structure and fluid mosaic model
- Nucleus, mitochondria, and endoplasmic reticulum
- Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, and peroxisomes
- Cytoskeleton and cell motility
- Membrane Transport
- Passive diffusion and osmosis
- Facilitated diffusion and carrier proteins
- Active transport and ion pumps
- Endocytosis and exocytosis
- Cellular Energetics and Metabolism
- Glycolysis and the citric acid cycle
- Oxidative phosphorylation and the electron transport chain
- Photosynthesis fundamentals
- Enzyme kinetics and regulation
- Cell Cycle and Division
- Phases of mitosis and cytokinesis
- Meiosis and genetic recombination
- Cell cycle checkpoints and regulation
- Apoptosis and cell death
- Cell Structure and Organelles
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Microbiology
4 topics- Bacterial Structure and Function
- Cell wall, Gram-positive vs. Gram-negative
- Bacterial reproduction and binary fission
- Plasmids and horizontal gene transfer
- Viruses and Pathogenesis
- Viral structure and replication cycles
- Lytic and lysogenic cycles
- Mechanisms of microbial pathogenicity
- Fungi, Protozoa, and Parasites
- Antimicrobial Concepts
- Mechanisms of antibiotic action
- Antibiotic resistance development
- Bacterial Structure and Function
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Human Anatomy and Physiology
5 topics- Nervous System
- Neuron structure and action potentials
- Synaptic transmission and neurotransmitters
- Central and peripheral nervous systems
- Autonomic nervous system
- Cardiovascular and Respiratory Systems
- Cardiac cycle and electrical conduction
- Blood composition and hemostasis
- Gas exchange and respiratory mechanics
- Endocrine System
- Hormone types and signaling mechanisms
- Hypothalamic-pituitary axis
- Glucose regulation and feedback loops
- Digestive and Renal Systems
- Digestion, absorption, and accessory organs
- Nephron function and urine formation
- Fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance
- Immune and Musculoskeletal Systems
- Innate and adaptive immunity
- Antibodies and antigen recognition
- Muscle contraction and sliding filament model
- Nervous System
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Genetics and Molecular Biology
4 topics- Mendelian and Non-Mendelian Inheritance
- Dominant, recessive, and codominant traits
- Sex-linked inheritance and pedigrees
- Polygenic and epistatic interactions
- DNA Replication and Repair
- Semiconservative replication mechanism
- DNA polymerases and replication machinery
- Mutation types and DNA repair pathways
- Transcription and Translation
- RNA synthesis and processing
- Genetic code and ribosomal translation
- Regulation of gene expression
- Biotechnology Techniques
- PCR and gel electrophoresis
- Recombinant DNA and cloning
- CRISPR and gene editing basics
- Mendelian and Non-Mendelian Inheritance
PCAT (Pharmacy College Admission Test) Biological Processes flashcards — 52 questions with answers
What are the three core components of the cell theory?
(1) All living organisms are composed of one or more cells; (2) the cell is the basic unit of structure and organization in organisms; (3) all cells arise from pre-existing cells.
Which organelle is the site of aerobic respiration (ATP production), and what feature distinguishes it structurally?
The mitochondrion. It has a double membrane, with the inner membrane folded into cristae (housing the electron transport chain) and a matrix containing its own circular DNA and ribosomes.
Compare the functions of rough ER and smooth ER.
Rough ER is studded with ribosomes and synthesizes/folds proteins destined for secretion or membranes. Smooth ER lacks ribosomes and handles lipid/steroid synthesis, detoxification, and $\ce{Ca^2+}$ storage.
What is the role of the Golgi apparatus, and what are its cis and trans faces?
The Golgi modifies, sorts, and packages proteins/lipids into vesicles. The cis face receives vesicles from the ER; the trans face packages and ships them toward the membrane or lysosomes.
What distinguishes lysosomes from peroxisomes?
Lysosomes contain acidic hydrolytic enzymes (optimal $\text{pH} \approx 5$) for intracellular digestion. Peroxisomes break down very-long-chain fatty acids and detoxify substances, producing and degrading $\ce{H2O2}$ via catalase.
List the three main types of membrane transport that do NOT require ATP.
Simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion (via channels/carriers), and osmosis (diffusion of water). All move solutes down their concentration/electrochemical gradient.
How does the $\ce{Na+/K+}$-ATPase pump work, and why is it primary active transport?
It uses ATP hydrolysis to pump 3 $\ce{Na+}$ out and 2 $\ce{K+}$ in per cycle, against their gradients. It is primary active transport because energy comes directly from ATP.
Define hypertonic, hypotonic, and isotonic solutions relative to a cell.
Hypertonic: higher solute outside, water leaves, cell shrinks (crenates). Hypotonic: lower solute outside, water enters, cell swells/lyses. Isotonic: equal solute, no net water movement.
What is the difference between primary and secondary active transport?
Primary active transport uses ATP directly (e.g., $\ce{Na+/K+}$-ATPase). Secondary active transport (symport/antiport) uses the electrochemical gradient established by primary transport to move a second solute, without directly using ATP.
State the net ATP, NADH, and pyruvate yield of glycolysis per glucose molecule.
Per glucose: net $2$ ATP (4 made, 2 invested), $2$ NADH, and $2$ pyruvate. Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm and is anaerobic.
What is the overall theoretical ATP yield from complete aerobic oxidation of one glucose molecule?
Approximately $30$–$32$ ATP total (glycolysis + pyruvate oxidation + citric acid cycle + oxidative phosphorylation).
In the electron transport chain, what is the final electron acceptor and what is the product?
Molecular oxygen ($\ce{O2}$) is the final electron acceptor, combining with electrons and protons to form water: $\ce{O2 + 4H+ + 4e- -> 2H2O}$.
Write the net balanced equation for cellular respiration.
$$\ce{C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy(ATP)}$$
Compare the products of lactic acid fermentation and alcoholic fermentation.
Lactic acid fermentation: pyruvate $\to$ lactate, regenerating $\ce{NAD+}$ (in muscle/bacteria). Alcoholic fermentation: pyruvate $\to$ ethanol $+ \ce{CO2}$, regenerating $\ce{NAD+}$ (in yeast).
List the phases of the cell cycle in order.
$\text{G}_1$ (growth), $\text{S}$ (DNA synthesis/replication), $\text{G}_2$ (growth/preparation), and $\text{M}$ (mitosis + cytokinesis). $\text{G}_1$, $\text{S}$, $\text{G}_2$ together form interphase.
Name the four stages of mitosis in order and one key event of each.
Prophase (chromosomes condense, spindle forms), Metaphase (chromosomes align at metaphase plate), Anaphase (sister chromatids separate to poles), Telophase (nuclear envelopes reform).
How does meiosis differ from mitosis in outcome?
Mitosis produces 2 genetically identical diploid ($2n$) cells. Meiosis produces 4 genetically distinct haploid ($n$) gametes via two divisions, with crossing over and independent assortment generating variation.
What occurs at the $\text{G}_1$/S checkpoint and which protein guards it?
The $\text{G}_1$/S (restriction) checkpoint verifies cell size, nutrients, and DNA integrity before committing to replication. The tumor suppressor $p53$ can halt the cycle for repair or trigger apoptosis if DNA is damaged.
Contrast the cell walls of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.
Gram-positive: thick peptidoglycan layer, no outer membrane, stains purple. Gram-negative: thin peptidoglycan plus an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharide (LPS/endotoxin), stains pink/red.
What are bacterial endospores and their significance?
Endospores are dormant, highly resistant structures (e.g., in Bacillus and Clostridium) that survive heat, desiccation, and chemicals, allowing the bacterium to persist in harsh conditions and germinate later.
Show the other 32 Biological Processes flashcards
Distinguish bacterial transformation, transduction, and conjugation.
Transformation: uptake of free environmental DNA. Transduction: DNA transfer via a bacteriophage. Conjugation: direct DNA transfer between bacteria through a pilus (often plasmid-mediated).
What distinguishes a lytic cycle from a lysogenic cycle in bacteriophages?
Lytic: the virus replicates immediately, lysing and killing the host. Lysogenic: viral DNA integrates into the host genome as a prophage and replicates passively until induced into the lytic cycle.
How do enveloped and non-enveloped (naked) viruses differ?
Enveloped viruses have a lipid bilayer derived from the host membrane and are more sensitive to desiccation/detergents. Naked viruses have only a protein capsid and are generally more environmentally stable.
What is a retrovirus and which enzyme is characteristic of it?
A retrovirus (e.g., HIV) is an RNA virus that uses reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA genome into DNA, which is then integrated into the host genome by integrase.
Compare the basic cellular structures of fungi, protozoa, and helminths.
Fungi: eukaryotic, chitin cell walls, can be yeasts or molds. Protozoa: single-celled eukaryotes, no cell wall, often motile (flagella/cilia/pseudopods). Helminths: multicellular eukaryotic worms.
Name the causative organism of malaria and its vector.
Plasmodium species (protozoa), transmitted by the female Anopheles mosquito.
What is the difference between bacteriostatic and bactericidal antimicrobials?
Bacteriostatic agents inhibit bacterial growth/reproduction (relying on host immunity to clear them); bactericidal agents directly kill the bacteria.
Why are beta-lactam antibiotics (e.g., penicillins) selectively toxic to bacteria?
They inhibit transpeptidase (penicillin-binding proteins) involved in peptidoglycan cross-linking in the bacterial cell wall. Human cells lack peptidoglycan walls, so the drug is selectively toxic.
List four major mechanisms of antibiotic resistance.
(1) Enzymatic drug inactivation (e.g., beta-lactamase); (2) target modification; (3) decreased drug uptake/altered permeability; (4) efflux pumps that expel the drug.
Distinguish the resting membrane potential from the threshold and peak of an action potential.
Resting potential is about $-70\,\text{mV}$. The threshold (around $-55\,\text{mV}$) triggers an all-or-none action potential, which peaks near $+30\,\text{mV}$ as voltage-gated $\ce{Na+}$ channels open.
What ion movements cause depolarization and repolarization in a neuron?
Depolarization: voltage-gated $\ce{Na+}$ channels open and $\ce{Na+}$ rushes in. Repolarization: $\ce{Na+}$ channels close and voltage-gated $\ce{K+}$ channels open, letting $\ce{K+}$ flow out.
Contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
Sympathetic: 'fight or flight,' increases heart rate, dilates pupils/airways, mobilizes energy (mainly norepinephrine). Parasympathetic: 'rest and digest,' slows heart rate, stimulates digestion (acetylcholine).
Trace the path of blood through the heart starting from the right atrium.
Right atrium $\to$ tricuspid valve $\to$ right ventricle $\to$ pulmonary valve $\to$ lungs $\to$ left atrium $\to$ mitral (bicuspid) valve $\to$ left ventricle $\to$ aortic valve $\to$ aorta $\to$ body.
Write the formula for cardiac output and define its components.
$$CO = HR \times SV$$ where $CO$ is cardiac output, $HR$ is heart rate (beats/min), and $SV$ is stroke volume (mL/beat).
What is the role of hemoglobin and how does the Bohr effect influence it?
Hemoglobin carries $\ce{O2}$ in red blood cells. The Bohr effect: increased $\ce{CO2}$/$\ce{H+}$ (lower pH) decreases hemoglobin's $\ce{O2}$ affinity, promoting $\ce{O2}$ unloading in active tissues.
Which hormone lowers blood glucose and which raises it, and where are they produced?
Insulin lowers blood glucose (beta cells of pancreatic islets); glucagon raises blood glucose (alpha cells of pancreatic islets).
Distinguish the anterior and posterior pituitary in terms of hormone production.
The anterior pituitary synthesizes its own hormones (e.g., GH, ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, prolactin). The posterior pituitary stores and releases hormones (ADH, oxytocin) made by the hypothalamus.
Compare the action mechanisms of peptide hormones and steroid hormones.
Peptide hormones bind cell-surface receptors and act via second messengers (e.g., cAMP) for fast, short-lived effects. Steroid hormones are lipid-soluble, cross the membrane, bind intracellular receptors, and alter gene transcription for slower, lasting effects.
List the four primary functions/segments of the nephron in order of filtrate flow.
Glomerulus/Bowman's capsule (filtration) $\to$ proximal convoluted tubule (bulk reabsorption) $\to$ loop of Henle (concentration gradient) $\to$ distal convoluted tubule (regulated reabsorption/secretion) $\to$ collecting duct (water reabsorption via ADH).
Where in the digestive tract does most chemical digestion and nutrient absorption occur, and via what structures?
The small intestine. Absorption is maximized by villi and microvilli (brush border), which vastly increase surface area; pancreatic enzymes and bile complete digestion there.
Distinguish innate from adaptive immunity.
Innate immunity is nonspecific, rapid, and present from birth (skin, phagocytes, inflammation, complement). Adaptive immunity is specific, slower, and develops immunological memory (B and T lymphocytes).
Contrast the roles of B cells and the two main T cell types.
B cells produce antibodies (humoral immunity). Helper T cells ($\ce{CD4+}$) coordinate the immune response via cytokines; cytotoxic T cells ($\ce{CD8+}$) directly kill infected/cancerous cells.
Compare the protein filaments responsible for skeletal muscle contraction.
Thin filaments are actin; thick filaments are myosin. Per the sliding filament theory, myosin heads bind actin and pull the thin filaments inward (using ATP), shortening the sarcomere.
In a monohybrid cross of two heterozygotes ($Aa \times Aa$), what are the genotypic and phenotypic ratios?
Genotypic ratio $1\,AA : 2\,Aa : 1\,aa$. Phenotypic ratio $3$ dominant $: 1$ recessive.
Define incomplete dominance versus codominance.
Incomplete dominance: heterozygote shows a blended/intermediate phenotype (e.g., red $\times$ white $\to$ pink). Codominance: both alleles are fully and simultaneously expressed (e.g., AB blood type).
State the two Hardy-Weinberg equations and what each term represents.
$$p + q = 1 \quad\text{and}\quad p^{2} + 2pq + q^{2} = 1$$ where $p$ and $q$ are allele frequencies; $p^{2}$, $2pq$, and $q^{2}$ are the frequencies of homozygous dominant, heterozygous, and homozygous recessive genotypes.
Why is DNA replication described as semiconservative, and which enzyme synthesizes the new strands?
Each daughter molecule retains one parental (template) strand and one newly synthesized strand. DNA polymerase synthesizes the new strands in the $5' \to 3'$ direction.
Distinguish the leading strand from the lagging strand in DNA replication.
The leading strand is synthesized continuously toward the replication fork ($5' \to 3'$). The lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously as Okazaki fragments, later joined by DNA ligase.
In transcription and translation, what are the roles of RNA polymerase and the ribosome?
RNA polymerase synthesizes mRNA from a DNA template ($5' \to 3'$) during transcription. The ribosome reads mRNA codons and links amino acids via tRNA during translation.
How many nucleotides form a codon, and what are the start and common stop codons?
Three nucleotides per codon. The start codon is $\text{AUG}$ (methionine); the stop codons are $\text{UAA}$, $\text{UAG}$, and $\text{UGA}$.
What is PCR and what are the three temperature steps of each cycle?
PCR (polymerase chain reaction) amplifies specific DNA sequences. Each cycle: denaturation (~$95\,^{\circ}\text{C}$, strands separate), annealing (~$50$–$65\,^{\circ}\text{C}$, primers bind), and extension (~$72\,^{\circ}\text{C}$, Taq polymerase synthesizes new strands).
How does gel electrophoresis separate DNA fragments?
DNA, being negatively charged (phosphate backbone), migrates toward the positive electrode through an agarose gel. Smaller fragments move faster/farther, separating fragments by size.
PCAT (Pharmacy College Admission Test) Biological Processes FAQ
What is in the PCAT (Pharmacy College Admission Test) Biological Processes syllabus?
PCAT (Pharmacy College Admission Test) Biological Processes is split into 4 chapters: General Biology and Cell Biology, Microbiology, Human Anatomy and Physiology and Genetics and Molecular Biology. Together they contain 17 topics and 53 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in PCAT (Pharmacy College Admission Test) Biological Processes?
4 chapters, containing 17 topics and 53 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Human Anatomy and Physiology, with 5 topics.
Are there flashcards for PCAT (Pharmacy College Admission Test) Biological Processes?
Yes — a 52-card Biological Processes deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.