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Overseas Registration Exam (ORE) Oral Biology, Anatomy and Dental Materials Science Syllabus
The Oral Biology, Anatomy and Dental Materials Science syllabus for Overseas Registration Exam (ORE) in full: 5 chapters, 18 topics and 6 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Oral Biology, Anatomy and Dental Materials Science flashcards with answers.
Oral Biology, Anatomy and Dental Materials Science syllabus: all 5 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Head and Neck Anatomy
4 topics- Osteology of the Skull, Maxilla and Mandible
- Muscles and Spaces
- Muscles of mastication and facial expression
- Fascial spaces and infection pathways
- Nerve Supply
- Trigeminal nerve and divisions
- Facial nerve and cranial nerves of clinical relevance
- Vascular Supply and Lymphatic Drainage
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Oral Histology and Tooth Morphology
4 topics- Enamel, Dentine, Pulp and Cementum Structure
- The Periodontium and Oral Mucosa
- Dental Morphology and Tooth Identification
- Tooth Development and Eruption
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Oral Physiology and Biochemistry
3 topics- Saliva: Composition and Function
- Mastication, Deglutition and Taste
- Calcium, Phosphate and Mineralisation
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Microbiology and Immunology of the Oral Cavity
3 topics- Oral Microbiome and Dental Plaque Biofilm
- Microbiology of Caries and Periodontal Disease
- Host Defences and Inflammatory Response
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Dental Materials Science
4 topics- Properties of Dental Materials
- Mechanical, thermal and optical properties
- Biocompatibility and corrosion
- Impression Materials and Gypsum Products
- Restorative and Luting Materials
- Metals, Ceramics and Polymers in Dentistry
- Properties of Dental Materials
Overseas Registration Exam (ORE) Oral Biology, Anatomy and Dental Materials Science flashcards — 51 questions with answers
Name the bones that form the skull and state how many bones make up the human skull in total.
The skull comprises 22 bones: 8 cranial bones (frontal, 2 parietal, 2 temporal, occipital, sphenoid, ethmoid) and 14 facial bones. The mandible is the only freely mobile skull bone.
At which suture do the two halves of the maxilla and the two halves of the frontal bone meet anteriorly?
The two maxillae meet at the intermaxillary suture; the frontal bone meets the two parietal bones at the coronal suture, and the parietals meet each other at the sagittal suture.
List the four bony processes of the maxilla.
Frontal process, zygomatic process, alveolar process, and palatine process. The maxilla also contains the maxillary sinus (antrum) and forms the floor of the orbit, the lateral wall of the nasal cavity, and most of the hard palate.
Through which mandibular foramen does the inferior alveolar nerve enter, and where does it exit?
It enters through the mandibular foramen (guarded by the lingula) on the medial surface of the ramus and exits through the mental foramen as the mental nerve, typically below the second premolar.
Name the four muscles of mastication and their common nerve supply.
Masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid, and lateral pterygoid. All are innervated by the mandibular division ($V_3$) of the trigeminal nerve and all develop from the first pharyngeal arch.
Which muscle is the primary protruder and depressor of the mandible, and what is its unique action?
The lateral pterygoid. Acting bilaterally it protrudes and depresses the mandible (opens the mouth); acting unilaterally it produces side-to-side grinding. It is the only masticatory muscle that opens the jaw.
Define the pterygomandibular space and state its clinical significance.
It is the fascial space bounded laterally by the ramus of the mandible and medially by the medial pterygoid muscle, containing the inferior alveolar nerve and vessels. It is the target site for an inferior alveolar nerve block.
State the sensory and motor distribution of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) divisions.
$V_1$ ophthalmic (sensory only), $V_2$ maxillary (sensory only), and $V_3$ mandibular (sensory plus motor to muscles of mastication). $V_2$ supplies maxillary teeth; $V_3$ supplies mandibular teeth via the inferior alveolar nerve.
Which nerve provides general sensation versus taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
General sensation is via the lingual nerve (a branch of $V_3$); taste is via the chorda tympani (a branch of the facial nerve, CN VII), which joins the lingual nerve.
What is the main arterial supply to the teeth and jaws?
The maxillary artery, a terminal branch of the external carotid. Maxillary teeth are supplied by the superior alveolar arteries (posterior, middle, anterior); mandibular teeth by the inferior alveolar artery.
Describe the lymphatic drainage of the tongue and its clinical importance.
The tip drains to submental nodes; the anterior two-thirds drains to submandibular nodes; the posterior third drains bilaterally to deep cervical (jugulo-omohyoid) nodes. Bilateral drainage of the posterior third allows contralateral metastasis of tongue cancer.
State the composition of enamel and why it cannot regenerate.
Enamel is approximately $96\%$ inorganic (hydroxyapatite), $1\%$ organic, and $3\%$ water by weight. It is acellular and produced by ameloblasts that are lost after eruption, so it cannot regenerate or remodel.
Compare the inorganic content of enamel, dentine, and cementum by weight.
Enamel approximately $96\%$ mineral; dentine approximately $70\%$ mineral, $20\%$ organic, $10\%$ water; cementum approximately $45\text{–}50\%$ mineral. Dentine and cementum are softer and contain more collagen than enamel.
What is the basic structural unit of enamel and its characteristic appearance?
The enamel rod (prism), a keyhole-shaped bundle of hydroxyapatite crystals running from the dentino-enamel junction to the surface. Striae of Retzius (incremental lines) and perikymata reflect rhythmic deposition.
Name the cell that forms dentine and describe the dentinal tubule.
The odontoblast forms dentine; its cell body lines the pulp while its process (Tomes' fibre) extends into the dentinal tubule. Tubules run from the pulp to the dentino-enamel junction, making dentine sensitive and vital throughout life.
List the four functional zones of the dental pulp from the periphery inward.
1) Odontoblastic layer; 2) Cell-free zone of Weil; 3) Cell-rich zone; 4) Pulp core (central zone) containing vessels and nerves. The pulp provides nutrition, sensation, defence, and dentine formation.
Distinguish acellular from cellular cementum.
Acellular (primary) cementum covers the cervical two-thirds of the root, forms first, contains no cementocytes, and anchors Sharpey's fibres. Cellular (secondary) cementum covers the apical third and furcations, contains cementocytes, and is laid down throughout life to allow continued attachment.
Name the four components of the periodontium.
Gingiva, periodontal ligament (PDL), cementum, and alveolar bone. The PDL connects cementum to alveolar bone via Sharpey's fibres and contains the proprioceptive receptors for occlusal load.
Name the principal fibre groups of the periodontal ligament.
Alveolar crest, horizontal, oblique (the most numerous, resisting axial/masticatory forces), apical, and interradicular fibres. The oblique fibres convert chewing pressure into tension on the alveolar bone.
Contrast keratinised and non-keratinised oral mucosa with examples.
Masticatory mucosa (gingiva, hard palate) is keratinised/parakeratinised and firmly bound to bone. Lining mucosa (cheek, floor of mouth, soft palate, lips) is non-keratinised and mobile. Specialised mucosa (dorsum of tongue) bears taste papillae.
Show the other 31 Oral Biology, Anatomy and Dental Materials Science flashcards
Give the dental formula for the permanent and primary human dentitions.
Permanent: $\frac{2\,1\,2\,3}{2\,1\,2\,3}$ per side (I, C, PM, M) = 32 teeth. Primary: $\frac{2\,1\,0\,2}{2\,1\,0\,2}$ per side (I, C, M) = 20 teeth (no premolars).
Which permanent tooth typically has three roots, and how are they arranged?
The maxillary first molar usually has three roots: two buccal (mesiobuccal and distobuccal) and one palatine (lingual). The mesiobuccal root commonly has two canals (MB1 and MB2).
How does the FDI two-digit tooth notation work?
The first digit is the quadrant (1–4 permanent, 5–8 primary; numbered clockwise from upper-right) and the second digit is the tooth (1 central incisor to 8 third molar). For example, tooth 36 is the lower-left permanent first molar.
List the stages of tooth development.
Initiation (bud stage), proliferation (cap stage), histodifferentiation and morphodifferentiation (bell stage), apposition, and maturation/eruption. The enamel organ, dental papilla, and dental follicle form the tooth and its supporting tissues.
What is reciprocal induction in odontogenesis?
Reciprocal signalling between the oral epithelium (enamel organ) and the underlying neural-crest-derived ectomesenchyme (dental papilla). The epithelium induces odontoblast differentiation (forming dentine), and dentine then induces ameloblasts to form enamel.
State the typical eruption sequence and age of the first primary and first permanent teeth.
First primary tooth: mandibular central incisor at about 6 months. First permanent tooth: mandibular first molar (the '6-year molar') at about 6 years. Eruption is generally mandibular before maxillary.
State the major inorganic and organic components of saliva and its daily volume.
Mainly water (about $99\%$); ions include $\ce{Na+}$, $\ce{K+}$, $\ce{Cl-}$, $\ce{HCO3-}$, $\ce{Ca^2+}$, $\ce{PO4^3-}$; organics include amylase, lysozyme, lactoferrin, IgA, and mucins. About $0.5\text{–}1.5\,\text{L}$ is produced per day.
Name the three major salivary glands and their relative secretory contributions and secretion types.
Parotid (about $25\%$, serous), submandibular (about $60\text{–}70\%$, mixed seromucous), and sublingual (about $5\%$, predominantly mucous). At rest the submandibular gland contributes most saliva.
List four protective functions of saliva.
Buffering acids (bicarbonate/phosphate systems), remineralisation (supplying $\ce{Ca^2+}$ and $\ce{PO4^3-}$), antimicrobial action (lysozyme, lactoferrin, IgA), and lubrication/digestion (mucins and amylase). It also aids taste and clearance of debris.
Describe the three phases of deglutition (swallowing).
1) Oral phase (voluntary): bolus pushed posteriorly by the tongue. 2) Pharyngeal phase (involuntary): soft palate elevates, larynx rises, epiglottis closes the airway. 3) Oesophageal phase: peristalsis carries the bolus to the stomach.
Name the five basic tastes and the receptor type for each.
Sweet, umami, and bitter act via G-protein-coupled receptors (taste type 1 and type 2 receptors); salty and sour act via ion channels ($\ce{Na+}$ channels for salty, $\ce{H+}$ for sour). Taste is carried by CN VII, IX, and X.
Give the chemical formula of hydroxyapatite and its acid-dissolution behaviour.
Hydroxyapatite is $\ce{Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2}$. It dissolves when oral pH falls below the critical value of about $5.5$: $\ce{Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2 + 8H+ -> 10Ca^2+ + 6HPO4^2- + 2H2O}$.
How does fluoride convert hydroxyapatite to a more acid-resistant form?
Fluoride replaces the hydroxyl group to form fluorapatite, $\ce{Ca10(PO4)6F2}$, which has a lower critical pH (about $4.5$), making enamel more resistant to acid dissolution and promoting remineralisation.
Explain the de/remineralisation balance and the critical pH concept.
Enamel demineralises when the surrounding fluid is undersaturated with respect to hydroxyapatite (pH below about $5.5$) and remineralises when supersaturated. Caries results when demineralisation persistently exceeds remineralisation.
Define the dental plaque biofilm and describe its matrix.
Dental plaque is a structured microbial biofilm of bacteria embedded in an extracellular polymeric matrix of polysaccharides (e.g. glucans from sucrose), proteins, and DNA, adherent to the acquired pellicle on the tooth surface.
Outline the stages of dental plaque formation.
1) Acquired pellicle forms from salivary glycoproteins. 2) Initial reversible adhesion of early colonisers (e.g. Streptococci). 3) Irreversible attachment and co-aggregation. 4) Maturation into a climax community with increasing anaerobes and species diversity.
Name the key cariogenic bacteria and explain why they cause caries.
Streptococcus mutans and Lactobacillus species. They are acidogenic (ferment sugars to acid) and aciduric (survive at low pH), and S. mutans synthesises adhesive glucans from sucrose, promoting biofilm accumulation and enamel demineralisation.
State the ecological plaque hypothesis of caries.
Disease results from a shift in the balance of the resident plaque microbiota driven by environmental change. Frequent sugar intake and low pH select for acidogenic/aciduric species (e.g. S. mutans), causing caries rather than a single specific pathogen.
Name the bacteria associated with periodontal disease ('red complex').
The red complex of Porphyromonas gingivalis, Tannerella forsythia, and Treponema denticola. These are Gram-negative anaerobes associated with mature subgingival plaque and chronic periodontitis.
Differentiate the innate and adaptive immune defences of the oral cavity.
Innate (immediate, non-specific): saliva (lysozyme, lactoferrin), epithelial barrier, neutrophils, complement, and gingival crevicular fluid. Adaptive (specific, slower): T and B lymphocytes producing antibodies, including secretory IgA in saliva.
List the five cardinal signs of acute inflammation and their Latin names.
Redness (rubor), heat (calor), swelling (tumor), pain (dolor), and loss of function (functio laesa). These result from vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and leukocyte infiltration.
Define stress, strain, and Young's modulus as applied to dental materials.
Stress is force per unit area, $\sigma = \frac{F}{A}$; strain is fractional deformation, $\varepsilon = \frac{\Delta L}{L_0}$; Young's modulus (stiffness) is $E = \frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon}$. A high modulus means a rigid material; a low modulus means a flexible one.
Define the coefficient of thermal expansion and its relevance to restorations.
It quantifies dimensional change per degree of temperature change. A mismatch between a restoration and tooth structure causes percolation (marginal gap opening/closing with temperature changes), leading to microleakage. Composite ideally matches tooth thermal expansion.
What is the difference between a thermoplastic and a thermosetting polymer in dentistry?
Thermoplastics (e.g. some denture liners) soften repeatedly on heating and are not cross-linked. Thermosets (e.g. set acrylic, composite resin) form irreversible cross-links on curing and cannot be re-melted. Most denture bases are heat-cured thermoset PMMA.
Classify dental impression materials into elastic and non-elastic groups.
Elastic: hydrocolloids (reversible agar, irreversible alginate) and elastomers (polysulphide, condensation silicone, addition silicone/PVS, polyether). Non-elastic (rigid): impression plaster, impression compound, zinc oxide eugenol, and waxes.
Compare addition silicone (PVS) and polyether impression materials.
PVS (addition silicone) is hydrophobic, highly accurate, dimensionally stable, releases no by-product, and is very elastic. Polyether is hydrophilic (works in moisture), very accurate, but stiff (hard to remove) and absorbs water if stored in humidity, distorting the impression.
State the setting reaction of gypsum products and how W:P ratio affects strength.
$\ce{(CaSO4)2 \cdot H2O + 3H2O -> 2CaSO4 \cdot 2H2O}$ (calcium sulphate hemihydrate to dihydrate), an exothermic reaction. A lower water:powder ratio gives a denser, stronger model. Dental stone needs less water than plaster because its particles are denser and less porous.
Compare the key properties of dental amalgam and resin composite as restorative materials.
Amalgam: high compressive strength, durable, cheap, non-adhesive (needs mechanical retention), non-aesthetic, contains mercury. Composite: tooth-coloured, bonds via acid-etch/adhesive, but undergoes polymerisation shrinkage and is more technique-sensitive and wear-prone in load-bearing areas.
Explain the setting and adhesion mechanism of glass ionomer cement (GIC).
GIC sets by an acid-base reaction between fluoroaluminosilicate glass powder and polyacrylic acid liquid, forming a salt/hydrogel matrix. It bonds chemically to tooth structure (ionic exchange with $\ce{Ca^2+}$) and releases fluoride, but is brittle and has low fracture toughness.
Name common luting (cementing) materials and a key feature of each.
Zinc phosphate (high strength, no adhesion, low pH initially), glass ionomer (chemical bond, fluoride release), resin-modified GIC (combines fluoride release with improved strength), and resin cements (highest strength and bond, used for ceramics/veneers but technique-sensitive).
Compare the general properties of metals, ceramics, and polymers used in dentistry.
Metals (e.g. cobalt-chromium, gold alloys, titanium): strong, ductile, tough, good thermal/electrical conductors, but non-aesthetic. Ceramics (e.g. porcelain, zirconia, lithium disilicate): hard, aesthetic, biocompatible, but brittle (low tensile strength). Polymers (e.g. PMMA, composite resin): light, flexible, easily processed, but lower strength and wear resistance.
Overseas Registration Exam (ORE) Oral Biology, Anatomy and Dental Materials Science FAQ
What is in the Overseas Registration Exam (ORE) Oral Biology, Anatomy and Dental Materials Science syllabus?
Overseas Registration Exam (ORE) Oral Biology, Anatomy and Dental Materials Science is split into 5 chapters: Head and Neck Anatomy, Oral Histology and Tooth Morphology, Oral Physiology and Biochemistry, Microbiology and Immunology of the Oral Cavity and Dental Materials Science. Together they contain 18 topics and 6 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in Overseas Registration Exam (ORE) Oral Biology, Anatomy and Dental Materials Science?
5 chapters, containing 18 topics and 6 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Head and Neck Anatomy, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for Overseas Registration Exam (ORE) Oral Biology, Anatomy and Dental Materials Science?
Yes — a 51-card Oral Biology, Anatomy and Dental Materials Science deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.