πŸ‡ΊπŸ‡Έ Multistate Essay Examination (MEE) Β· subject

Multistate Essay Examination (MEE) Torts Syllabus

The Torts syllabus for Multistate Essay Examination (MEE) in full: 4 chapters, 14 topics and 23 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Torts flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
14Topics
23Sub-topics
51Flashcards

Torts syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Intentional Torts

    3 topics
    • Harms to the Person
      • Battery and assault
      • False imprisonment
      • Intentional infliction of emotional distress
    • Harms to Property
      • Trespass to land
      • Trespass to chattels and conversion
    • Defenses to Intentional Torts
      • Consent and self-defense
      • Defense of property and necessity
  2. Negligence

    4 topics
    • Duty of Care
      • Reasonable person standard
      • Landowner and professional duties
      • Foreseeable plaintiffs
    • Breach
      • Negligence per se
      • Res ipsa loquitur
    • Causation
      • Actual cause and but-for test
      • Proximate cause and intervening causes
    • Damages and Defenses
      • Comparative and contributory negligence
      • Assumption of risk
  3. Strict Liability and Products

    3 topics
    • Strict Liability
      • Abnormally dangerous activities
      • Animals
    • Products Liability Theories
      • Manufacturing defects
      • Design defects and risk-utility
      • Warning defects
    • Defenses in Products Cases
  4. Other Torts and Vicarious Liability

    4 topics
    • Defamation
      • Elements and per se categories
      • Constitutional limits and public figures
    • Privacy Torts
    • Misrepresentation and Business Torts
    • Nuisance and Vicarious Liability

Multistate Essay Examination (MEE) Torts flashcards β€” 51 questions with answers

  1. What are the elements of battery?

    (1) A harmful or offensive contact (judged by a reasonable person standard) with the plaintiff's person, (2) intent to cause that contact, and (3) causation. Contact with anything connected to the plaintiff (e.g., clothing, a held object) counts.

  2. What are the elements of assault?

    (1) An act creating a reasonable apprehension of an imminent harmful or offensive contact, (2) intent to cause that apprehension, and (3) causation. Words alone are usually insufficient; apprehension is not the same as fear.

  3. What are the elements of false imprisonment?

    (1) An act or omission that confines or restrains the plaintiff to a bounded area, (2) intent to confine, and (3) causation. The plaintiff must be aware of the confinement or harmed by it; there must be no reasonable means of escape known to the plaintiff.

  4. What are the elements of intentional infliction of emotional distress (IIED)?

    (1) Extreme and outrageous conduct, (2) intent or recklessness, (3) causation, and (4) severe emotional distress. Unlike other intentional torts, actual damages (severe distress) are required and nominal damages are unavailable.

  5. What is the 'transferred intent' doctrine and which torts does it apply to?

    Intent transfers when a defendant intends one tort but commits another, or intends to harm one person but harms another. It applies among the five 'trespassory' torts: battery, assault, false imprisonment, trespass to land, and trespass to chattels.

  6. What are the elements of trespass to land?

    (1) Physical invasion of the plaintiff's real property, and (2) intent to enter the land (intent to trespass is not required; mistake is no defense). The invasion may be by a person or by a physical object the defendant causes to enter.

  7. Distinguish trespass to chattels from conversion.

    Both involve intentional interference with personal property. Trespass to chattels is a minor interference (small damage or brief dispossession), with damages measured by the harm. Conversion is so serious it warrants the defendant paying the full value (forced sale); remedy is fair market value at the time of conversion.

  8. What is required for the defense of consent to an intentional tort?

    Consent (express or implied) is a complete defense if the plaintiff had legal capacity to consent and the defendant stayed within the scope of consent. Consent obtained by fraud, duress, or to a criminal act may be invalid.

  9. What are the limits on using self-defense as a defense to intentional torts?

    A person may use reasonable force to defend against an imminent threat; deadly force is allowed only when facing a threat of serious bodily harm or death. There is generally no duty to retreat (majority), and the privilege is lost once the threat ends.

  10. When may a person use force in defense of property?

    Reasonable, non-deadly force may be used to prevent a tort against property after a request to desist (unless futile). Deadly force or deadly mechanical devices (e.g., spring guns) may never be used solely to protect property.

  11. What is the 'shopkeeper's privilege'?

    A merchant may detain a suspected shoplifter for a reasonable time and in a reasonable manner if there is a reasonable belief that theft occurred. It is a defense to false imprisonment.

  12. Explain the privilege of necessity (public vs. private).

    Necessity is a defense to property torts. Public necessity (acting for the community to avert a greater harm) is an absolute defense with no liability for damage. Private necessity (acting to protect one's own interests) is a qualified defense: the actor must pay for actual damage caused but cannot be ejected.

  13. What are the four elements of a negligence cause of action?

    (1) Duty (a legal obligation to conform to a standard of care), (2) Breach (failure to meet that standard), (3) Causation (actual and proximate), and (4) Damages (actual harm).

  14. To whom is a duty of care owed under the majority (Cardozo) view?

    Under Cardozo (Palsgraf), a duty is owed only to foreseeable plaintiffs within the 'zone of danger.' The minority (Andrews) view holds a duty is owed to everyone harmed by the defendant's negligent act.

  15. What is the general standard of care in negligence?

    The reasonably prudent person under the same or similar circumstances β€” an objective standard. The defendant's mental deficiencies and inexperience are not considered, but superior skill/knowledge and relevant physical characteristics are.

  16. What standard of care applies to children in negligence?

    A child is held to the conduct of a child of like age, intelligence, and experience (subjective). Children under about age 5 are generally incapable of negligence. Exception: a child engaged in an adult/inherently dangerous activity is held to the adult reasonable-person standard.

  17. What duty does a land possessor owe to an invitee?

    An invitee (one entering for the possessor's business or as a member of the public) is owed a duty to make reasonable inspections to discover non-obvious dangerous conditions and to make them safe or warn of them.

  18. What duty does a land possessor owe to a licensee vs. a discovered trespasser?

    To a licensee (social guest), the possessor must warn of known concealed dangers and not act with willful/wanton conduct, but need not inspect. To a discovered/anticipated trespasser, the duty is to warn of known, hidden, artificial conditions involving risk of serious harm.

  19. What is the 'attractive nuisance' doctrine?

    A land possessor may be liable for injuries to child trespassers caused by an artificial condition if: (1) the possessor knows kids are likely there, (2) knows the condition poses an unreasonable risk to children, (3) the children cannot appreciate the danger, and (4) the burden of remedying is slight compared to the risk.

  20. What is negligence per se and what must a plaintiff show to use it?

    A statute's standard replaces the common-law duty when the plaintiff (1) is in the class of persons the statute was designed to protect and (2) suffers the type of harm the statute was designed to prevent. Violation establishes duty and breach (conclusive in many jurisdictions).

Show the other 31 Torts flashcards
  1. What are the elements and effect of res ipsa loquitur?

    The plaintiff shows (1) the harm is of a type that does not normally occur absent negligence and (2) the instrumentality was in the defendant's exclusive control. It creates an inference of breach, allowing the case to reach the jury (defeats a directed verdict for defendant).

  2. What is the 'Hand Formula' (B < PL) for breach?

    Judge Learned Hand's test: a defendant breaches if the burden of taking precautions (B) is less than the probability of harm (P) multiplied by the gravity of the resulting injury/loss (L). If B < PΓ—L, failing to take the precaution is unreasonable.

  3. What is the test for actual cause (cause in fact)?

    The 'but-for' test: the injury would not have occurred but for the defendant's conduct. When multiple causes combine, use the 'substantial factor' test; when multiple defendants and unclear who caused harm, use 'alternative causation' (burden shifts to defendants).

  4. What is proximate (legal) cause?

    A limitation on liability based on foreseeability: a defendant is liable only for harms that are a foreseeable result of the negligent conduct. Unforeseeable, superseding intervening causes cut off liability; foreseeable intervening causes do not.

  5. What is the 'eggshell (thin) skull' rule?

    A defendant takes the plaintiff as he finds him and is liable for the full extent of injuries, even if unusually severe due to the plaintiff's pre-existing condition or fragility. The extent of damages need not be foreseeable.

  6. Which intervening causes are typically considered foreseeable (not superseding)?

    Generally foreseeable and therefore not superseding: subsequent medical malpractice, negligent rescue, reaction/protection forces, and subsequent diseases or accidents resulting from impairment. Intentional crimes and intentional torts by third parties are often (but not always) superseding.

  7. What damages are recoverable in a negligence action, and is there a duty to mitigate?

    Recoverable: personal injury (past/future medical, lost earnings, pain and suffering) and property damage (cost of repair or fair market value). Plaintiff must mitigate (e.g., seek treatment). Pure economic loss without injury/property damage is generally not recoverable; punitive damages require wanton/willful conduct.

  8. Compare contributory negligence, pure comparative negligence, and modified comparative negligence.

    Contributory negligence: any plaintiff fault completely bars recovery (minority). Pure comparative: recovery reduced by plaintiff's % of fault (any %). Modified comparative: recovery reduced by fault but barred if plaintiff's fault exceeds 50% (or reaches 50%).

  9. What is assumption of the risk?

    A plaintiff who voluntarily and knowingly encounters a risk may be barred or reduced in recovery. Express assumption is by agreement; implied assumption requires actual knowledge of the specific risk and voluntary acceptance. In many comparative-fault states, implied assumption merges into comparative fault.

  10. What is the 'last clear chance' doctrine?

    A plaintiff's rebuttal to contributory negligence: the defendant who had the last clear chance to avoid the accident but failed to do so is liable despite the plaintiff's contributory negligence. It exists only in contributory negligence jurisdictions.

  11. What are the three categories of strict liability at common law?

    (1) Injuries caused by abnormally dangerous (ultrahazardous) activities, (2) injuries caused by wild/dangerous animals, and (3) products liability (strict liability branch). Liability exists regardless of the level of care exercised.

  12. What factors define an 'abnormally dangerous activity' for strict liability?

    An activity is abnormally dangerous if it (1) creates a foreseeable risk of serious harm even when reasonable care is exercised, and (2) is not a matter of common usage in the community. Examples: blasting, storing toxic chemicals, transporting hazardous materials.

  13. What is the strict liability rule for animals?

    Owners are strictly liable for harm caused by wild animals and for harm from known dangerous propensities of domestic animals (the 'one-bite' notion of prior knowledge). For trespassing livestock, owners are strictly liable for reasonably foreseeable property damage.

  14. What are the three theories a plaintiff can use in a products liability case?

    (1) Negligence, (2) Strict products liability, and (3) Implied/express warranty (breach of warranty). (Misrepresentation/fraud is a fourth.) Each has different elements but the same underlying defects.

  15. What are the elements of a strict products liability claim?

    (1) Defendant is a commercial supplier (merchant), (2) the product was defective when it left the defendant's control, (3) the defect caused the injury (actual and proximate cause), and (4) the plaintiff suffered damages. Privity is not required; plaintiff need not be the buyer.

  16. What are the three types of product defects?

    (1) Manufacturing defect β€” the product departs from its intended design (consumer-expectation test). (2) Design defect β€” the entire line is unreasonably dangerous (risk-utility test asking if a reasonable alternative design existed). (3) Warning defect β€” inadequate instructions or failure to warn of non-obvious risks.

  17. What is the risk-utility test for a design defect?

    A product is defectively designed if the risks of the chosen design outweigh its utility β€” typically shown by proving a reasonable alternative design was available that would have reduced the danger at acceptable cost without impairing the product's usefulness.

  18. In strict products liability, who can be a defendant and who can be a plaintiff?

    Defendants: any commercial supplier in the distribution chain (manufacturer, wholesaler, retailer) β€” but not casual sellers or service providers. Plaintiffs: any foreseeable user, consumer, or bystander injured by the defective product (no privity required).

  19. What defenses apply in a strict products liability case?

    Comparative/contributory fault (in comparative states, reduces recovery), assumption of risk, and product misuse that was not reasonably foreseeable. Note: ordinary contributory negligence (mere failure to discover the defect) traditionally is not a defense; the state-of-the-art and government-standards compliance are relevant but not conclusive.

  20. How does breach of the implied warranty of merchantability work in products cases?

    Every merchant seller of goods of that kind impliedly warrants the goods are fit for ordinary purposes. A defect breaching this warranty creates liability regardless of fault; defenses include disclaimers (if conspicuous), assumption of risk, and failure to give timely notice of breach.

  21. What are the elements of common-law defamation?

    (1) A defamatory statement of or concerning the plaintiff, (2) publication to a third party, (3) falsity, and (4) damage to reputation. For public concern/public figures, the plaintiff must also prove fault (negligence or actual malice) β€” a constitutional requirement.

  22. Distinguish libel from slander, and what is 'slander per se'?

    Libel is written/recorded/permanent defamation β€” damages are presumed. Slander is spoken β€” the plaintiff must prove special (economic) damages, unless it is slander per se. Slander per se categories: statements about (1) business/profession, (2) a loathsome disease, (3) serious crime, or (4) unchastity/sexual misconduct.

  23. What is the constitutional 'actual malice' standard, and when does it apply?

    Actual malice (New York Times v. Sullivan) means the statement was made with knowledge of its falsity or with reckless disregard for the truth. Public officials and public figures must prove actual malice; private figures suing on matters of public concern need prove only negligence (and actual malice for presumed/punitive damages).

  24. What are the defenses/privileges to defamation?

    Truth (complete defense), consent, and privileges. Absolute privileges: statements in judicial/legislative proceedings, between spouses, and required broadcasts. Qualified privilege: statements in the public interest or to one with a common interest, lost if abused (exceeds scope or made with malice).

  25. What are the four privacy torts?

    (1) Appropriation of the plaintiff's name or likeness for commercial advantage, (2) Intrusion upon seclusion (highly offensive to a reasonable person), (3) Placing the plaintiff in a false light before the public, and (4) Public disclosure of private facts.

  26. Compare 'false light' privacy with defamation.

    False light requires publicizing facts that place the plaintiff in a false light highly offensive to a reasonable person, and requires wide publicity (not just publication to one person). It can be based on true facts arranged misleadingly and protects emotional/dignitary harm, whereas defamation protects reputation and requires a false statement of fact.

  27. What are the elements of intentional misrepresentation (fraud/deceit)?

    (1) A false representation of a material fact, (2) scienter (knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard), (3) intent to induce reliance, (4) justifiable/actual reliance by the plaintiff, and (5) damages. Pure economic loss is recoverable here.

  28. Distinguish tortious interference with contract from interference with prospective economic advantage.

    Interference with contract elements: (1) a valid contract, (2) defendant's knowledge of it, (3) intentional interference inducing breach, and (4) damages. Interference with prospective advantage involves a probable future economic relationship (not yet a contract) and gives defendants broader privilege to compete; both require intentional, improper interference.

  29. Distinguish private nuisance from public nuisance.

    Private nuisance is a substantial and unreasonable interference with another's use and enjoyment of their land (plaintiff must have a property interest). Public nuisance is an unreasonable interference with a right common to the public; a private plaintiff can sue only if they suffered harm different in kind from the general public.

  30. What is required to hold an employer vicariously liable under respondeat superior?

    An employer is liable for an employee's torts committed within the scope of employment. Minor deviations ('detours') remain within scope; major deviations ('frolics') do not. Intentional torts are usually outside scope unless force is inherent in the job or the conduct serves the employer.

  31. When is a principal liable for the torts of an independent contractor?

    Generally not liable β€” a key distinction from employees. Exceptions: (1) inherently dangerous activities, (2) non-delegable duties (e.g., duty of a storekeeper to keep premises safe for customers), and (3) negligent selection of the contractor (a direct, not vicarious, theory).

Multistate Essay Examination (MEE) Torts FAQ

What is in the Multistate Essay Examination (MEE) Torts syllabus?

Multistate Essay Examination (MEE) Torts is split into 4 chapters: Intentional Torts, Negligence, Strict Liability and Products and Other Torts and Vicarious Liability. Together they contain 14 topics and 23 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in Multistate Essay Examination (MEE) Torts?

4 chapters, containing 14 topics and 23 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Negligence, with 4 topics.

Are there flashcards for Multistate Essay Examination (MEE) Torts?

Yes β€” a 51-card Torts deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.