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Membership of the Royal College of Physicians (MRCP UK) Neurology Syllabus

The Neurology syllabus for Membership of the Royal College of Physicians (MRCP UK) in full: 4 chapters, 18 topics and 9 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 52 Neurology flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
18Topics
9Sub-topics
52Flashcards

Neurology syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Cerebrovascular Disease

    4 topics
    • Ischaemic stroke
      • Thrombolysis and thrombectomy pathways
      • Stroke classification and territories
    • Transient ischaemic attack and secondary prevention
    • Intracerebral and subarachnoid haemorrhage
    • Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis
  2. Headache and Episodic Disorders

    4 topics
    • Migraine and tension-type headache
    • Cluster headache and trigeminal autonomic cephalalgias
    • Secondary headache red flags
      • Giant cell arteritis and raised intracranial pressure
    • Epilepsy and status epilepticus
      • Seizure classification and antiepileptic drugs
  3. Neuromuscular and Movement Disorders

    5 topics
    • Peripheral neuropathies
      • Guillain-Barre syndrome
      • Chronic inflammatory and hereditary neuropathies
    • Neuromuscular junction disorders
      • Myasthenia gravis and myasthenic crisis
    • Myopathies and motor neurone disease
    • Parkinson's disease and parkinsonian syndromes
    • Tremor, dystonia and other movement disorders
  4. Inflammatory, Infective and Cognitive Disorders

    5 topics
    • Multiple sclerosis and demyelinating disease
    • CNS infections
      • Bacterial meningitis and encephalitis
    • Dementia and cognitive impairment
      • Alzheimer's and non-Alzheimer dementias
    • Spinal cord disease and cauda equina syndrome
    • Cerebrospinal fluid interpretation

Membership of the Royal College of Physicians (MRCP UK) Neurology flashcards — 52 questions with answers

  1. In acute ischaemic stroke, what is the time window for IV alteplase (thrombolysis) and the standard dose?

    Within 4.5 hours of symptom onset. Dose: $0.9\ \text{mg/kg}$ (max $90\ \text{mg}$), with 10% given as a bolus and the remainder over 60 minutes.

  2. What is the time window for mechanical thrombectomy in anterior circulation large-vessel occlusion, and when can it be extended?

    Up to 6 hours from onset for proximal anterior circulation occlusion. Extendable to 24 hours if favourable imaging (CT perfusion/diffusion mismatch shows salvageable penumbra, e.g. DAWN/DEFUSE-3 criteria).

  3. What antiplatelet regimen is given immediately after ischaemic stroke once haemorrhage is excluded?

    Aspirin $300\ \text{mg}$ daily for 2 weeks, then switch to long-term clopidogrel $75\ \text{mg}$ daily.

  4. What does the ABCD2 score predict, and what are its components?

    It predicts early stroke risk after TIA. Components: Age $\geq 60$ (1), BP $\geq 140/90$ (1), Clinical features (unilateral weakness 2, speech disturbance without weakness 1), Duration ($\geq 60$ min 2, 10–59 min 1), Diabetes (1). Max score 7.

  5. For secondary prevention after TIA/ischaemic stroke of non-cardioembolic origin, what is first-line antiplatelet therapy?

    Clopidogrel $75\ \text{mg}$ daily lifelong. If contraindicated, aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole.

  6. What degree of symptomatic carotid stenosis warrants carotid endarterectomy, and within what timeframe?

    $50$–$99\%$ stenosis (NASCET criteria) on the symptomatic side, performed ideally within 2 weeks of the index event.

  7. In a patient with TIA/stroke and atrial fibrillation, what is the preferred secondary prevention and timing of anticoagulation?

    A DOAC (e.g. apixaban) is preferred over warfarin. Timing follows the '1-3-6-12 day' rule based on stroke size (delay anticoagulation in large strokes due to haemorrhagic transformation risk).

  8. What is the most common cause of spontaneous (non-traumatic) intracerebral haemorrhage, and its typical locations?

    Hypertension, causing deep haemorrhages from Charcot–Bouchard microaneurysms in the basal ganglia, thalamus, pons, and cerebellum.

  9. What is the classic presentation and diagnostic finding of subarachnoid haemorrhage?

    Sudden 'thunderclap' worst-ever headache. Non-contrast CT (sensitivity highest within 6h); if CT negative, lumbar puncture at $\geq 12\ \text{hours}$ showing xanthochromia.

  10. What is the most common cause of spontaneous subarachnoid haemorrhage, and what is the definitive treatment?

    Ruptured saccular (berry) aneurysm, most often at the anterior communicating artery. Treatment: endovascular coiling (preferred) or surgical clipping.

  11. What drug is given to prevent vasospasm/delayed cerebral ischaemia after subarachnoid haemorrhage?

    Nimodipine $60\ \text{mg}$ orally every 4 hours for 21 days (a calcium-channel blocker).

  12. Name the imaging sign and typical presentation of cerebral venous sinus thrombosis.

    Presents with headache (often progressive), seizures, focal deficits, and signs of raised ICP. CT venogram/MR venogram shows the 'empty delta sign' (filling defect in the superior sagittal sinus).

  13. What is the treatment of cerebral venous sinus thrombosis, even in the presence of haemorrhagic venous infarction?

    Anticoagulation with LMWH (then warfarin/DOAC), because the haemorrhage is a consequence of venous congestion. Anticoagulation is not contraindicated by the venous infarct.

  14. List the main risk factors for cerebral venous sinus thrombosis.

    Pregnancy/puerperium, combined oral contraceptive pill, thrombophilia, dehydration, malignancy, and local infection (e.g. mastoiditis, sinusitis).

  15. State the diagnostic criteria features distinguishing migraine without aura from tension-type headache.

    Migraine: $\geq 5$ attacks lasting 4–72h, unilateral, pulsating, moderate–severe, aggravated by activity, with nausea/vomiting or photophobia+phonophobia. Tension-type: bilateral, pressing/tightening, mild–moderate, not aggravated by activity, no nausea.

  16. What are the acute and prophylactic treatment options for migraine?

    Acute: oral triptan (e.g. sumatriptan) + NSAID/paracetamol $\pm$ antiemetic. Prophylaxis: propranolol, topiramate, or amitriptyline (consider CGRP monoclonal antibodies if refractory).

  17. Which migraine treatment is contraindicated in pregnancy and which is preferred for prophylaxis in women of childbearing age?

    Triptans are generally avoided and topiramate is contraindicated/teratogenic in pregnancy. Propranolol is preferred for prophylaxis in women of childbearing age (amitriptyline also used).

  18. Describe the classic features of cluster headache.

    Severe strictly unilateral periorbital pain lasting 15–180 min, occurring in clusters (1–8/day for weeks), with ipsilateral autonomic features: lacrimation, conjunctival injection, rhinorrhoea, ptosis/miosis, and restlessness/agitation.

  19. What are the acute and preventive treatments for cluster headache?

    Acute: high-flow $100\%$ oxygen ($12$–$15\ \text{L/min}$) via non-rebreathe mask and subcutaneous sumatriptan. Prevention: verapamil (first-line), short course of prednisolone to break a cluster.

  20. Name the trigeminal autonomic cephalalgias and the key distinguishing feature of paroxysmal hemicrania.

    Cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, SUNCT/SUNA, and hemicrania continua. Paroxysmal hemicrania has shorter attacks (2–30 min), higher frequency, and shows an absolute response to indomethacin.

Show the other 32 Neurology flashcards
  1. List the red-flag features ('SNOOP') suggesting a secondary headache requiring investigation.

    Systemic symptoms/Secondary risk (fever, weight loss, cancer, HIV), Neurological deficits, Onset sudden (thunderclap), Older age (>50, consider GCA), Pattern change/Positional/Papilloedema/Precipitated by Valsalva.

  2. In a patient over 50 with new headache, jaw claudication and scalp tenderness, what is the diagnosis, key blood test, and immediate treatment?

    Giant cell (temporal) arteritis. ESR markedly raised ($>50$); confirm with temporal artery biopsy. Start high-dose prednisolone immediately (do not wait for biopsy) to prevent blindness.

  3. Define status epilepticus and state the first-line drug treatment.

    A seizure lasting $\geq 5\ \text{minutes}$ or recurrent seizures without recovery of consciousness between them. First-line: IV lorazepam $4\ \text{mg}$ (or buccal midazolam/rectal diazepam), repeated once if needed.

  4. Give the second- and third-line drugs in the status epilepticus treatment escalation.

    Second-line: IV levetiracetam, phenytoin, or sodium valproate. Third-line (refractory): general anaesthesia with propofol, midazolam, or thiopental infusion and intubation.

  5. What are the first-line antiepileptic drugs for focal and for generalised tonic-clonic seizures?

    Focal: lamotrigine or levetiracetam. Generalised tonic-clonic: sodium valproate (men), or lamotrigine/levetiracetam in women of childbearing potential.

  6. Which antiepileptic drug worsens absence and myoclonic seizures, and which is first-line for absence seizures?

    Carbamazepine (and other Na-channel blockers like phenytoin) can worsen absence/myoclonic seizures. First-line for absence: ethosuximide (or sodium valproate).

  7. Contrast demyelinating versus axonal peripheral neuropathy on nerve conduction studies.

    Demyelinating: markedly reduced conduction velocity, prolonged distal latencies, conduction block, with relatively preserved amplitude. Axonal: reduced amplitude (CMAP/SNAP) with relatively preserved conduction velocity.

  8. What is Guillain-Barré syndrome, its hallmark CSF finding, and management?

    An acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy causing ascending flaccid weakness with areflexia, often post-infection (e.g. Campylobacter). CSF shows albuminocytological dissociation (high protein, normal cells). Treat with IVIG or plasma exchange; monitor FVC.

  9. List common causes of a predominantly sensory peripheral neuropathy (glove-and-stocking).

    Diabetes mellitus, alcohol, vitamin $B_{12}$ deficiency, chronic kidney disease, drugs (e.g. isoniazid, chemotherapy), and amyloidosis.

  10. Describe the pathophysiology and antibody of myasthenia gravis.

    Autoantibodies against the postsynaptic nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (anti-AChR in ~85%; anti-MuSK in some seronegative cases), causing fatigable weakness worse with activity. Associated with thymic hyperplasia/thymoma.

  11. How is myasthenia gravis treated, and what defines a myasthenic crisis?

    Symptomatic: pyridostigmine (acetylcholinesterase inhibitor). Immunosuppression: prednisolone, azathioprine; thymectomy if thymoma. Myasthenic crisis = respiratory failure requiring ventilation; treat with IVIG/plasma exchange.

  12. Contrast Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome with myasthenia gravis.

    LEMS: antibodies to presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels (P/Q-type), associated with small-cell lung cancer; weakness improves with repeated use (incremental response on repetitive nerve stimulation), with hyporeflexia and autonomic features. MG: postsynaptic AChR antibodies, fatigable weakness worsening with use.

  13. What is the inheritance, key clinical signs and pathognomonic feature of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

    X-linked recessive (dystrophin gene). Proximal weakness, calf pseudohypertrophy, Gowers' sign, and markedly elevated creatine kinase. Onset in early childhood; wheelchair-bound by adolescence.

  14. Name the four main clinical patterns of motor neurone disease and the most common type.

    Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (most common; mixed UMN + LMN), progressive bulbar palsy, progressive muscular atrophy (LMN only), and primary lateral sclerosis (UMN only). Sensory and eye movements are spared.

  15. What drug modestly prolongs survival in motor neurone disease, and how?

    Riluzole, a glutamate antagonist (inhibits glutamate release), prolongs survival by approximately 3 months. Non-invasive ventilation also improves survival and quality of life.

  16. State the cardinal motor features and core pathology of Parkinson's disease.

    Bradykinesia, resting (pill-rolling) tremor, and rigidity (cogwheel), typically asymmetrical with postural instability. Pathology: loss of dopaminergic neurones in the substantia nigra pars compacta with Lewy bodies ($\alpha$-synuclein).

  17. Compare the 'Parkinson-plus' syndromes: PSP, MSA and corticobasal degeneration by a distinguishing feature each.

    Progressive supranuclear palsy: vertical gaze palsy and early falls. Multiple system atrophy: early autonomic dysfunction (postural hypotension, bladder) + cerebellar signs. Corticobasal degeneration: asymmetric apraxia and 'alien limb' phenomenon.

  18. What is the first-line treatment for Parkinson's disease with motor symptoms affecting quality of life, and a key long-term complication?

    Levodopa (combined with a peripheral dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor, e.g. co-careldopa). Long-term: motor fluctuations ('wearing off', 'on-off') and dyskinesias.

  19. Distinguish essential tremor from Parkinsonian tremor.

    Essential tremor: postural/action tremor (6–12 Hz), bilateral, improves with alcohol, often family history, worse with arms outstretched; treated with propranolol/primidone. Parkinsonian tremor: resting tremor (4–6 Hz), asymmetric, improves with action.

  20. What is the genetics and characteristic movement disorder of Huntington's disease?

    Autosomal dominant CAG trinucleotide repeat expansion in the huntingtin (HTT) gene on chromosome 4, showing anticipation. Causes chorea, plus cognitive decline and psychiatric features; treat chorea with tetrabenazine.

  21. What is dystonia, and what is the typical management of focal dystonia (e.g. cervical dystonia, blepharospasm)?

    Sustained or intermittent involuntary muscle contractions causing abnormal postures/twisting movements. Focal dystonia is treated first-line with botulinum toxin injections.

  22. What are the diagnostic principles (McDonald criteria concept) for multiple sclerosis?

    Demonstration of CNS demyelination disseminated in space and time. MRI shows periventricular, juxtacortical, infratentorial and spinal cord lesions; CSF shows oligoclonal bands (not in serum).

  23. Name the classic clinical syndromes of multiple sclerosis (optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, Lhermitte's, Uhthoff's).

    Optic neuritis: painful monocular visual loss with RAPD. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia: impaired adduction + contralateral nystagmus (MLF lesion). Lhermitte's: electric-shock sensation down spine on neck flexion. Uhthoff's: symptoms worsen with heat.

  24. How are acute MS relapses and disease-modifying therapy approached?

    Acute relapse: high-dose methylprednisolone (IV or oral) to shorten duration. Long-term: disease-modifying therapies (e.g. beta-interferon, natalizumab, ocrelizumab, dimethyl fumarate) to reduce relapse frequency.

  25. What are the typical CSF findings in bacterial versus viral versus tuberculous/fungal meningitis?

    Bacterial: high neutrophils, high protein, low glucose ($<\frac{1}{2}$ serum), cloudy. Viral: lymphocytes, normal/mildly raised protein, normal glucose, clear. TB/fungal: lymphocytes, high protein, low glucose, fibrin web.

  26. What is the empirical antibiotic for suspected bacterial meningitis in adults, and the adjunct that reduces complications?

    IV ceftriaxone (add amoxicillin if $>50$ years or immunocompromised, to cover Listeria). Adjunctive dexamethasone reduces neurological complications (especially in pneumococcal meningitis).

  27. What is the classic presentation, EEG/MRI finding and treatment of herpes simplex encephalitis?

    Fever, altered mental state, focal seizures and behavioural change. MRI shows temporal lobe involvement; EEG shows periodic lateralised discharges. Treat empirically with IV aciclovir without delay.

  28. Compare Alzheimer's disease, vascular dementia, Lewy body dementia and frontotemporal dementia by a hallmark feature each.

    Alzheimer's: insidious memory loss, amyloid plaques + neurofibrillary tau tangles. Vascular: stepwise decline with vascular risk factors. Lewy body: fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, neuroleptic sensitivity. Frontotemporal: early personality/behaviour change or language decline, younger onset.

  29. Which dementia treatments are used, and which dementia features make antipsychotics dangerous?

    Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine) for mild–moderate Alzheimer's; memantine (NMDA antagonist) for moderate–severe or as add-on. Antipsychotics cause severe neuroleptic sensitivity reactions in Lewy body dementia.

  30. What are the red-flag features and management priority of cauda equina syndrome?

    Bilateral sciatica, saddle anaesthesia, urinary retention/overflow incontinence, faecal incontinence, and reduced anal tone. It is a surgical emergency: urgent MRI whole spine and decompression to prevent permanent deficit.

  31. Contrast the clinical features of an anterior cord (anterior spinal artery) syndrome with Brown-Séquard (hemisection) syndrome.

    Anterior cord: bilateral loss of motor function and pain/temperature below the lesion with preserved dorsal column (proprioception/vibration). Brown-Séquard: ipsilateral motor and dorsal column loss, contralateral pain/temperature loss below the lesion.

  32. What spinal cord syndrome results from vitamin $B_{12}$ deficiency, and which tracts are affected?

    Subacute combined degeneration of the cord: affects the dorsal columns (loss of proprioception/vibration, sensory ataxia) and lateral corticospinal tracts (UMN weakness, upgoing plantars), often with peripheral neuropathy.

Membership of the Royal College of Physicians (MRCP UK) Neurology FAQ

What is in the Membership of the Royal College of Physicians (MRCP UK) Neurology syllabus?

Membership of the Royal College of Physicians (MRCP UK) Neurology is split into 4 chapters: Cerebrovascular Disease, Headache and Episodic Disorders, Neuromuscular and Movement Disorders and Inflammatory, Infective and Cognitive Disorders. Together they contain 18 topics and 9 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in Membership of the Royal College of Physicians (MRCP UK) Neurology?

4 chapters, containing 18 topics and 9 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Neuromuscular and Movement Disorders, with 5 topics.

Are there flashcards for Membership of the Royal College of Physicians (MRCP UK) Neurology?

Yes — a 52-card Neurology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.