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Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales (ICAEW) ACA Certificate Level: Law, Tax and Business Technology Syllabus
The Certificate Level: Law, Tax and Business Technology syllabus for Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales (ICAEW) ACA in full: 3 chapters, 12 topics and 16 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 61 Certificate Level: Law, Tax and Business Technology flashcards with answers.
Certificate Level: Law, Tax and Business Technology syllabus: all 3 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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The English Legal System and Contract Law
4 topics- Sources and structure of English law
- Common law, equity and statute
- The court hierarchy and tribunals
- Formation of a valid contract
- Offer, acceptance and consideration
- Intention to create legal relations and capacity
- Contractual terms and breach
- Conditions, warranties and exclusion clauses
- Remedies for breach of contract
- Agency and the tort of negligence
- Sources and structure of English law
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Company Law and Insolvency
3 topics- Company formation and constitution
- Separate legal personality and the veil of incorporation
- Articles of association and company registers
- Directors, members and company financing
- Directors' duties and powers
- Share capital, loan capital and charges
- Insolvency and administration
- Liquidation and the order of distribution
- Administration and receivership
- Company formation and constitution
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Principles of Business and Personal Taxation
5 topics- The UK tax framework and administration
- Role of HMRC and self-assessment
- Tax avoidance, evasion and ethics
- Income tax computation for individuals
- Employment, trading and savings income
- Personal allowances and tax bands
- Capital gains tax and inheritance tax basics
- Corporation tax on company profits
- Value added tax and national insurance contributions
- The UK tax framework and administration
Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales (ICAEW) ACA Certificate Level: Law, Tax and Business Technology flashcards — 61 questions with answers
What are the two main sources of English law, and how do they differ?
Case law (common law/judge-made precedent) and legislation (statute law made by Parliament). Legislation overrides case law where they conflict, reflecting parliamentary sovereignty.
Explain the doctrine of judicial precedent (stare decisis) and the distinction between ratio decidendi and obiter dicta.
Stare decisis means lower courts must follow the legal reasoning of binding decisions from higher courts. The ratio decidendi is the binding legal principle that decided the case; obiter dicta are persuasive but non-binding statements made 'by the way'.
List the civil court hierarchy in England from lowest to highest.
County Court / High Court (first instance), then Court of Appeal (Civil Division), then the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court is the highest UK appellate court.
What is the difference between criminal law and civil law in terms of parties, burden of proof, and outcome?
Criminal: State prosecutes the defendant; proof 'beyond reasonable doubt'; outcome is punishment (fine/imprisonment). Civil: claimant sues defendant; proof 'on the balance of probabilities'; outcome is a remedy (e.g. damages) for the wronged party.
What is delegated (secondary) legislation, and give two examples?
Law made by a body other than Parliament under authority granted by an enabling/parent Act. Examples: statutory instruments, by-laws, and Orders in Council.
Name the three rules of statutory interpretation used by judges.
The literal rule (ordinary meaning of words), the golden rule (literal meaning modified to avoid absurdity), and the mischief rule (interpret to remedy the defect the statute aimed to cure).
What are the four essential elements required to form a valid simple contract?
Offer, acceptance, consideration, and intention to create legal relations (plus capacity and legality). Agreement = offer + acceptance.
Distinguish an offer from an invitation to treat, giving an example of each.
An offer is a definite promise to be bound on specific terms; an invitation to treat is merely an invitation to make an offer. Goods on a shop shelf or in a window display are invitations to treat, not offers.
State the postal rule of acceptance and one of its limitations.
Acceptance by post is effective when the letter is properly posted, not when received (Adams v Lindsell). It does not apply to instantaneous communication (phone, email) or where the offeror excludes it.
Define consideration and state the rule about past consideration.
Consideration is something of value given by each party (a benefit to one or detriment to the other) in exchange for the promise. Past consideration is generally not valid consideration—it must move in response to the promise, not predate it.
What is the presumption regarding intention to create legal relations in (a) social/domestic agreements and (b) commercial agreements?
(a) Social and domestic agreements are presumed NOT to be legally binding. (b) Commercial/business agreements are presumed TO be legally binding. Both presumptions are rebuttable by evidence.
Distinguish a condition from a warranty as contractual terms, and state the remedy for breach of each.
A condition is a fundamental term going to the root of the contract—breach allows the innocent party to repudiate (terminate) AND claim damages. A warranty is a minor term—breach allows damages only, not termination.
What is an innominate (intermediate) term, and how is the remedy for its breach determined?
An innominate term cannot be classified in advance as a condition or warranty. The remedy depends on the seriousness of the consequences of the breach: if it deprives the innocent party of substantially the whole benefit, they may terminate; otherwise only damages are available (Hong Kong Fir).
Distinguish an express term from an implied term in a contract.
An express term is specifically agreed by the parties (orally or in writing). An implied term is not expressly stated but is read into the contract by statute, custom, or the courts (e.g. terms implied by the Sale of Goods/Consumer Rights legislation).
What is the aim of damages for breach of contract, and what two requirements limit recovery?
Damages aim to put the claimant in the position they would have been in had the contract been performed (expectation interest). Recovery is limited by causation/remoteness (loss must be reasonably foreseeable—Hadley v Baxendale) and mitigation (claimant must take reasonable steps to reduce loss).
Name three equitable remedies available for breach of contract.
Specific performance, injunction, and rescission (also rectification). These are discretionary, unlike common-law damages which are available as of right.
Define agency and distinguish the three main ways an agent's authority can arise.
Agency is a relationship where an agent acts on behalf of a principal to create legal relations with third parties. Authority arises by: express actual authority (explicitly given), implied actual authority (incidental to the role), and apparent/ostensible authority (principal's representation to the third party).
What is ratification in agency law?
Where an agent acts without authority (or exceeds it), the principal can later adopt/approve the act, making it binding as if originally authorised. Ratification requires the principal to have existed and had capacity at the time of the act and to ratify the whole transaction.
State the three elements a claimant must prove to succeed in the tort of negligence.
1) The defendant owed the claimant a duty of care; 2) the defendant breached that duty (fell below the standard of a reasonable person); 3) the breach caused reasonably foreseeable loss/damage (causation and remoteness).
What test is used to establish whether a duty of care exists in novel situations?
The Caparo three-stage test: (1) reasonable foreseeability of harm, (2) sufficient proximity between the parties, and (3) that it is fair, just and reasonable to impose a duty.
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How is the standard of care assessed for breach of duty, and how does it apply to professionals?
The standard is that of the 'reasonable person' performing the activity. For professionals it is the standard of a reasonably competent member of that profession (the Bolam test)—e.g. an accountant is judged against a reasonably competent accountant.
Define the 'but for' test for causation in negligence.
The defendant's breach is a cause of the loss if the harm would NOT have occurred 'but for' the breach. If the loss would have happened anyway, causation is not established.
Distinguish the separate legal personality and limited liability of a company from its members.
A company is a separate legal person distinct from its members (Salomon v Salomon), so it owns its own assets and bears its own liabilities. Members' liability in a company limited by shares is limited to any amount unpaid on their shares.
Distinguish a private company (Ltd) from a public company (plc) on key requirements.
A plc must have minimum allotted share capital of £50,000 (at least 25% paid up), can offer shares to the public, needs a trading certificate before trading, and must have a company secretary; a private Ltd company has no minimum capital, cannot offer shares publicly, and needs no secretary.
What documents and information are required to register/incorporate a company?
An application for registration (Form IN01) including company name, registered office, type, members and directors' details, statement of capital, plus the memorandum of association and (optionally) articles of association, with the fee submitted to the Registrar of Companies (Companies House).
What are the memorandum of association and the articles of association?
The memorandum is a short historical document by which the subscribers state their wish to form the company and become members. The articles of association are the company's internal rulebook/constitution governing how it is run; companies may adopt the Model Articles.
What is the legal effect of the articles of association under s.33 Companies Act 2006?
The articles form a statutory contract binding the company and its members (and members to each other) as if signed by each. They can be altered by special resolution (75% majority).
Distinguish a director from a member (shareholder) of a company.
Directors manage and run the company (its agents, owing duties to it); members/shareholders own the company by holding shares and exercise control through voting at general meetings. A person can be both.
List the seven general statutory duties of a director under the Companies Act 2006.
1) Act within powers; 2) promote the success of the company; 3) exercise independent judgement; 4) exercise reasonable care, skill and diligence; 5) avoid conflicts of interest; 6) not accept benefits from third parties; 7) declare interests in proposed transactions.
Distinguish an ordinary resolution from a special resolution.
An ordinary resolution requires a simple majority (over 50%) of votes. A special resolution requires at least 75% of votes and is needed for major decisions (e.g. altering the articles, changing the name, reducing capital).
Distinguish equity finance from debt finance for a company.
Equity finance is raising money by issuing shares—shareholders are owners receiving dividends (discretionary). Debt finance is borrowing (loans/debentures)—lenders are creditors receiving interest (a fixed obligation) and are repaid before shareholders on winding up.
Distinguish a fixed charge from a floating charge as forms of security.
A fixed charge attaches to a specific identifiable asset (e.g. land); the company cannot dispose of it without the lender's consent. A floating charge 'floats' over a class of changing assets (e.g. stock) until it 'crystallises' into a fixed charge on default/liquidation. Fixed charges rank ahead of floating charges.
Distinguish ordinary shares from preference shares.
Ordinary shares carry voting rights and variable dividends, ranking last on a winding up. Preference shares typically carry a fixed dividend paid before ordinary dividends and priority on capital return, but usually no voting rights.
Distinguish compulsory liquidation from voluntary liquidation.
Compulsory liquidation is initiated by court order, usually on a creditor's petition (commonly for inability to pay debts). Voluntary liquidation is initiated by the members by resolution—either a members' voluntary liquidation (company solvent) or a creditors' voluntary liquidation (company insolvent).
What are the two statutory tests for whether a company is 'unable to pay its debts' (insolvent)?
The cash-flow test (cannot pay debts as they fall due) and the balance-sheet test (total liabilities exceed total assets). A statutory demand for £750+ unpaid after 21 days also evidences inability to pay.
What is the purpose of administration, and what 'moratorium' protection does it provide?
Administration aims to rescue the company as a going concern (or achieve a better result for creditors than winding up, or realise property for secured/preferential creditors). It imposes a statutory moratorium preventing creditors from taking legal action/enforcing security without consent, giving breathing space.
State the statutory order of priority for distributing assets on a company's liquidation.
1) Liquidator's costs/expenses; 2) preferential creditors (e.g. certain employee claims); 3) holders of floating charges (subject to the prescribed part for unsecured creditors); 4) unsecured creditors; 5) shareholders. Fixed-charge holders are paid first from their secured asset.
Distinguish wrongful trading from fraudulent trading.
Wrongful trading: a director continues trading when they knew (or ought to have known) there was no reasonable prospect of avoiding insolvent liquidation—no dishonesty required, civil liability. Fraudulent trading: carrying on business with intent to defraud creditors—requires dishonesty and can give rise to civil and criminal liability.
Name the five main UK taxes covered in the ACA Certificate level and what each is charged on.
Income tax (individuals' income), capital gains tax (gains on disposal of assets), corporation tax (company profits), value added tax (supplies of goods/services), and national insurance contributions (earnings). Inheritance tax (transfers of wealth) is also covered.
Distinguish direct taxes from indirect taxes with examples.
Direct taxes are levied on income, profits or gains of the person who bears them (e.g. income tax, corporation tax, CGT). Indirect taxes are levied on spending/transactions and collected by an intermediary (e.g. VAT). HMRC administers UK taxes.
What is the difference between tax evasion and tax avoidance?
Tax evasion is illegally reducing tax liability by concealing income or providing false information (a criminal offence). Tax avoidance is using lawful means to minimise tax, though 'aggressive' avoidance may be challenged under anti-avoidance rules (e.g. the GAAR).
State the key self-assessment filing and payment deadlines for an individual's income tax for a tax year.
Online return: by 31 January following the end of the tax year (paper: 31 October). Payments on account: 31 January (in the year) and 31 July (after); balancing payment by 31 January following the tax year. The UK tax year runs 6 April to 5 April.
List the three categories of taxable income and the order in which they are taxed in an income tax computation.
Non-savings income (e.g. employment, trading, property) first, then savings income (interest), then dividend income last (treated as the top slice). This ordering determines which rate band applies.
Outline the steps to compute an individual's income tax liability.
1) Total income from all sources; 2) deduct reliefs to get net income; 3) deduct the personal allowance to get taxable income; 4) split into non-savings, savings and dividend income; 5) apply the relevant tax rates/bands; 6) sum to get tax liability; 7) deduct tax already paid (e.g. PAYE) to find tax payable.
State the standard personal allowance and how it is restricted (tapered) for high earners.
The standard personal allowance is £12,570. It is reduced by £1 for every £2 of adjusted net income above £100,000, so it is fully withdrawn once income reaches £125,140. $\text{Reduction} = \frac{\text{ANI} - 100{,}000}{2}$.
State the UK income tax rate bands and rates for non-savings income (excluding Scotland).
Basic rate 20% on taxable income up to £37,700; higher rate 40% from £37,701 to £125,140; additional rate 45% above £125,140. Bands apply after deducting the personal allowance.
Outline the basic computation of a chargeable gain for capital gains tax.
$\text{Gain} = \text{Disposal proceeds} - \text{incidental costs of sale} - \text{allowable acquisition cost} - \text{enhancement expenditure}$. Total gains less losses, less the annual exempt amount, gives the taxable gain charged to CGT.
What are the main CGT rates for individuals and the annual exempt amount?
Standard CGT rates are 10% (gains within the basic-rate band) and 20% (above it); residential property is taxed at 18%/24%. Business Asset Disposal Relief gives a 10% rate on qualifying gains. The annual exempt amount is £3,000.
What is the inheritance tax nil rate band, the rate on death, and the basic spouse exemption?
The nil rate band is £325,000 (taxed at 0%); the excess on death is taxed at 40% (or 36% if 10%+ of the estate is left to charity). Transfers between UK-domiciled spouses/civil partners are wholly exempt.
Distinguish a Potentially Exempt Transfer (PET) from a Chargeable Lifetime Transfer (CLT) for IHT.
A PET is a lifetime gift to an individual—exempt if the donor survives 7 years, otherwise chargeable. A CLT is a lifetime gift into a trust—immediately chargeable to IHT at the lifetime rate of 20% (on amounts above the nil band), with a further charge if death occurs within 7 years.
Outline how corporation tax is charged: who pays it, on what, and for what period.
Companies (and other corporate bodies) pay corporation tax on their Taxable Total Profits (income profits plus chargeable gains) for a chargeable accounting period (max 12 months). Profits are computed and taxed at the corporation tax rate(s).
State the UK corporation tax main rate, small profits rate, and the thresholds.
Main rate 25% applies to profits over £250,000; small profits rate 19% applies to profits up to £50,000. Between £50,000 and £250,000 marginal relief tapers the effective rate. The limits are reduced for associated companies and short periods.
How is a company's trading profit adjusted from its accounting profit for corporation tax?
Start with accounting profit, then add back disallowable expenditure (e.g. depreciation, client entertaining, non-trade items), deduct non-trading income taxed elsewhere, and deduct capital allowances. The result is the tax-adjusted trading profit.
What are capital allowances and why are they given?
Capital allowances are tax-deductible reliefs given on qualifying capital expenditure (e.g. plant and machinery) in place of accounting depreciation, which is disallowed. Examples include the Annual Investment Allowance, writing-down allowances, and full expensing.
Define the three categories of VAT supply: standard-rated, zero-rated, and exempt, and the key difference for input tax recovery.
Standard-rated (20%) and reduced-rated (5%) are taxable supplies; zero-rated (0%) is also a taxable supply. A business making taxable (including zero-rated) supplies can recover input VAT. Exempt supplies carry no output VAT and do NOT allow recovery of related input VAT.
How is the VAT payable to HMRC for a period calculated?
$\text{VAT payable} = \text{Output VAT (on sales)} - \text{Input VAT (on purchases)}$. If input VAT exceeds output VAT, the business receives a repayment from HMRC.
State the VAT compulsory registration threshold and the deregistration threshold.
Compulsory registration is required when taxable turnover exceeds £90,000 in the previous 12 months (or is expected to in the next 30 days). A business may deregister if taxable turnover falls below £88,000.
Distinguish output VAT from input VAT.
Output VAT is the VAT a registered business charges on its sales/supplies to customers. Input VAT is the VAT the business pays on its purchases/expenses. The net of the two is paid to or reclaimed from HMRC.
Distinguish the main classes of National Insurance Contributions: Class 1, Class 2, and Class 4.
Class 1: paid on employees' earnings—primary by employees, secondary by employers. Class 2: flat-rate contributions for the self-employed. Class 4: profit-related contributions paid by the self-employed on trading profits.
How is VAT typically accounted for and what is the standard VAT period and return deadline?
VAT is normally accounted for quarterly. The VAT return and payment are due one month and seven days after the end of the VAT period, generally filed online under Making Tax Digital.
What is the privity of contract rule and its main statutory exception?
Privity means only the parties to a contract can sue or be sued on it. The main exception is the Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999, which allows a third party to enforce a term if the contract expressly provides, or purports to confer a benefit on them.
Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales (ICAEW) ACA Certificate Level: Law, Tax and Business Technology FAQ
What is in the Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales (ICAEW) ACA Certificate Level: Law, Tax and Business Technology syllabus?
Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales (ICAEW) ACA Certificate Level: Law, Tax and Business Technology is split into 3 chapters: The English Legal System and Contract Law, Company Law and Insolvency and Principles of Business and Personal Taxation. Together they contain 12 topics and 16 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales (ICAEW) ACA Certificate Level: Law, Tax and Business Technology?
3 chapters, containing 12 topics and 16 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Principles of Business and Personal Taxation, with 5 topics.
Are there flashcards for Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales (ICAEW) ACA Certificate Level: Law, Tax and Business Technology?
Yes — a 61-card Certificate Level: Law, Tax and Business Technology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.