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Institute and Faculty of Actuaries (IFoA) Exams Pensions, Health and Investment Specialisms (SP4, SP1, SP5, SP6, SP9) Syllabus
The Pensions, Health and Investment Specialisms (SP4, SP1, SP5, SP6, SP9) syllabus for Institute and Faculty of Actuaries (IFoA) Exams in full: 4 chapters, 12 topics and 25 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Pensions, Health and Investment Specialisms (SP4, SP1, SP5, SP6, SP9) flashcards with answers.
Pensions, Health and Investment Specialisms (SP4, SP1, SP5, SP6, SP9) syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Pensions and Other Benefits (SP4)
3 topics- Types of pension scheme
- Defined benefit and defined contribution schemes
- State pension and auto-enrolment framework
- Funding and valuation
- Actuarial funding methods and assumptions
- Technical provisions and the Pensions Regulator framework
- Scheme funding, deficits and recovery plans
- Pension scheme risk management
- Liability-driven investment and de-risking
- Buy-ins, buy-outs and longevity swaps
- Types of pension scheme
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Health and Care Insurance (SP1)
3 topics- Health and care products
- Private medical insurance
- Income protection and critical illness
- Long-term care insurance
- Pricing and reserving for health products
- Morbidity and inception/recovery rates
- Claim cost inflation and medical trend
- Underwriting and risk classification
- Health and care products
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Investment and Finance Specialism (SP5 and SP6)
3 topics- Investment management (SP5)
- Asset classes and their characteristics
- Portfolio construction and performance measurement
- Liability benchmarks and strategic asset allocation
- Financial engineering and derivatives (SP6)
- Pricing and hedging of derivatives
- Exotic options and structured products
- Greeks, dynamic hedging and model risk
- Risk measurement in investment
- Investment management (SP5)
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Enterprise Risk Management (SP9 / CERA)
3 topics- ERM frameworks
- Risk appetite, tolerance and governance structures
- Risk culture and the three lines of defence
- Risk quantification
- Economic capital and risk aggregation
- Copulas and dependency modelling
- Extreme value theory and stress testing
- Risk response and reporting
- Risk mitigation and capital allocation
- Emerging risks and scenario analysis
- ERM frameworks
Institute and Faculty of Actuaries (IFoA) Exams Pensions, Health and Investment Specialisms (SP4, SP1, SP5, SP6, SP9) flashcards — 51 questions with answers
What are the two principal types of occupational pension scheme, defined by how benefits are determined?
Defined Benefit (DB): benefit is set by a formula (e.g. based on salary and service) and the sponsor bears the investment/longevity risk. Defined Contribution (DC): contributions are fixed, the benefit equals the accumulated fund, and the member bears investment and longevity risk.
In a final salary DB scheme, how is the annual accrued pension typically calculated?
$\text{Pension} = \frac{\text{Pensionable service (years)} \times \text{Final pensionable salary}}{\text{Accrual rate denominator}}$, e.g. with a $\frac{1}{60}$ accrual rate, $\text{Pension} = \frac{N}{60} \times S_{\text{final}}$ where $N$ is years of service.
What is a Career Average Revalued Earnings (CARE) scheme?
A DB scheme where each year's accrued pension is based on that year's pensionable earnings, and accrued amounts are revalued (indexed) each year up to retirement. It reduces the cross-subsidy to high late-career earners compared with final salary.
Distinguish a hybrid pension scheme from pure DB and pure DC.
A hybrid scheme combines DB and DC features, sharing risk between sponsor and member. Examples: DB underpin on a DC pot, cash balance schemes (guaranteed contribution-based lump sum), or nursery DC plus DB top-up.
What distinguishes a funded from an unfunded (pay-as-you-go) pension arrangement?
Funded: contributions are invested in advance to build assets backing the liabilities. Unfunded/PAYG: benefits are paid from current revenue (e.g. taxation) with no accumulated assets; common for state and some public-sector schemes.
State the fundamental funding equation linking contributions, assets and liabilities for a pension scheme.
$$\text{PV(Future contributions)} + \text{Current assets} = \text{PV(Future benefits)} + \text{PV(Future expenses)}$$ The actuary chooses a contribution rate so this balances under the funding assumptions.
Define the funding level (funded ratio) of a pension scheme.
$$\text{Funding level} = \frac{\text{Market (or actuarial) value of assets}}{\text{Actuarial value of liabilities}}$$ A ratio above 1 (100%) indicates a surplus; below 1 indicates a deficit on the chosen basis.
What is the Projected Unit Method (PUM) of valuation and when is it appropriate?
PUM values benefits accrued to the valuation date but uses projected (final) salaries. The standard contribution rate is the cost of one further year's accrual for the active membership. Appropriate for an ongoing scheme with a stable, mature age profile.
How does the Current Unit Method differ from the Projected Unit Method?
The Current Unit Method values accrued benefits using current (not projected) salaries, giving a lower initial liability and standard contribution rate but a faster-rising contribution rate as members age. Suitable for closed schemes or where future accrual will cease.
Define the standard contribution rate (SCR) under a funding method.
The SCR is the contribution rate, usually expressed as a percentage of pensionable salaries, required to fund the benefits accruing over the control period assuming the scheme is exactly funded. $$\text{SCR} = \frac{\text{PV(benefits accruing in period)}}{\text{PV(pensionable salaries in period)}}$$
What is the role of the discount rate in a pension liability valuation, and how is it often chosen?
It converts future benefit cash flows to present value. A higher discount rate lowers the liability. It may be set on a market basis (e.g. government bond or corporate bond yields plus margin) for solvency/accounting, or on an expected-return-on-assets basis for ongoing funding.
List the main risks faced by a defined benefit pension scheme.
Investment/market risk, interest-rate (discount-rate) risk, inflation risk, longevity risk, salary-growth risk, sponsor covenant (default) risk, liquidity risk, and operational/regulatory risk.
What is sponsor covenant risk and why does it matter for a DB scheme?
It is the risk that the sponsoring employer becomes unable or unwilling to make required contributions or make good a deficit. A weak covenant reduces the security of members' benefits and typically argues for a more prudent funding basis and lower-risk investment strategy.
Explain Liability-Driven Investment (LDI) for a pension scheme.
LDI structures assets (often bonds and interest-rate/inflation swaps) so their value moves with the liabilities as discount rates and inflation change, hedging interest-rate and inflation risk and stabilising the funding level rather than maximising return.
What is a longevity swap and how does it manage pension risk?
A longevity swap exchanges fixed (expected) pension payments for floating (actual) payments based on realised mortality of the scheme. It hedges longevity/mortality-improvement risk: if pensioners live longer than expected, the counterparty pays the excess.
Compare a buy-in and a buy-out as DB de-risking strategies.
Buy-in: the scheme purchases a bulk annuity policy held as an asset; the trustees remain responsible for paying members. Buy-out: liabilities are fully transferred to an insurer which issues individual policies and the scheme can wind up; members become the insurer's policyholders.
What is interest-rate (duration) immunisation and Redington's conditions?
Immunisation matches asset and liability sensitivity to small interest-rate changes. Redington's conditions: (1) PV of assets = PV of liabilities; (2) duration of assets = duration of liabilities; (3) convexity (spread) of assets $\geq$ that of liabilities.
List the main categories of private health and care insurance products.
Private Medical Insurance (PMI), Critical Illness (CI) cover, Income Protection (IP)/Permanent Health Insurance, Long-Term Care Insurance (LTCI), and Health Cash Plans.
What is Income Protection (Permanent Health Insurance) and its key benefit feature?
IP pays a regular income if the policyholder is unable to work due to illness or injury, usually until recovery, retirement or end of term. Key features: a deferred period before benefit starts and replacement-ratio limits (benefit capped as a proportion of pre-disability earnings).
Define Critical Illness (CI) cover and its claim trigger.
CI pays a lump sum on diagnosis of one of a defined list of serious conditions (e.g. cancer, heart attack, stroke) meeting policy definitions. The trigger is diagnosis/survival of a defined illness, not disability or death; survival periods (e.g. 14 days) often apply.
Show the other 31 Pensions, Health and Investment Specialisms (SP4, SP1, SP5, SP6, SP9) flashcards
What is the deferred period in income protection and how does it affect pricing?
The deferred period is the time a claimant must be incapacitated before benefit payments begin (e.g. 4, 13, 26, 52 weeks). A longer deferred period reduces claim incidence and cost, lowering the premium, and aligns with other sick-pay arrangements.
Distinguish the inception/disability annuity approach used to reserve income protection claims.
The Manchester Unity (inception–annuity) approach values IP using a claim inception rate (probability of becoming sick) multiplied by an annuity factor for the expected duration of sickness. It separates the frequency of claims from their continuance/duration.
What are the key drivers of the cost of a Private Medical Insurance (PMI) product?
Claim frequency (number of treatments), claim severity (cost per treatment, driven by medical inflation), the scope of cover/excess, age and health of insured, and expense/commission loadings. Medical inflation typically exceeds price inflation.
State the basic equivalence (premium) principle for pricing an insurance contract.
$$\text{EPV(premiums)} = \text{EPV(benefits)} + \text{EPV(expenses)} + \text{EPV(profit/contingency loading)}$$ The premium is set so the expected present value of income equals that of outgo plus required margins.
Why must health insurance reserves include an IBNR component, and what is it?
IBNR (Incurred But Not Reported) reserves provide for claims that have occurred but not yet been reported/settled at the valuation date. Health claims have reporting delays, so reserving only on reported claims would understate liabilities.
What is a disabled life reserve (claims reserve) for income protection?
It is the reserve held for lives currently in claim, equal to the EPV of future benefit payments expected during the remaining period of disability, allowing for recovery and mortality of claimants (claim termination/continuance rates).
Define risk classification (risk rating) in health/protection underwriting.
Risk classification groups applicants into homogeneous risk categories using rating factors (age, sex where permitted, smoker status, occupation, medical history) so that premiums reflect expected claims cost, controlling against anti-selection.
What is anti-selection (adverse selection) and how does underwriting counter it?
Anti-selection is the tendency for higher-risk individuals to buy more/cheaper-than-fair cover when the insurer cannot distinguish risk. Underwriting (medical evidence, questionnaires, exclusions, loadings) and rating factors counter it by aligning premiums with true risk.
List common underwriting decisions/outcomes for a substandard life.
Accept at ordinary rates; accept with a premium loading (extra mortality/morbidity rating); accept with an exclusion clause; impose a benefit restriction or reduced sum assured; postpone the decision; or decline the application.
What is moral hazard, and how does it differ from anti-selection?
Moral hazard is the change in a policyholder's behaviour because they are insured (e.g. claiming more readily, reduced care). Anti-selection concerns who buys cover based on pre-existing risk; moral hazard concerns behaviour after cover is in force. Excesses, no-claims discounts and exclusions mitigate moral hazard.
In the SP5 context, what is the distinction between active and passive investment management?
Active management seeks to outperform a benchmark through stock selection and timing, accepting higher costs and tracking error. Passive management replicates an index to match the benchmark return at low cost, accepting market (beta) returns only.
State the expected return of a portfolio and its variance for two assets.
$$E[R_p] = w_A E[R_A] + w_B E[R_B]$$ $$\sigma_p^{2} = w_A^{2}\sigma_A^{2} + w_B^{2}\sigma_B^{2} + 2 w_A w_B \rho_{AB}\sigma_A \sigma_B$$ where $w$ are weights and $\rho_{AB}$ is the correlation.
State the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) equation.
$$E[R_i] = R_f + \beta_i\,(E[R_m] - R_f)$$ where $R_f$ is the risk-free rate, $E[R_m]$ the expected market return, and $\beta_i = \dfrac{\operatorname{Cov}(R_i,R_m)}{\sigma_m^{2}}$ measures systematic risk.
Define the Sharpe ratio and what it measures.
$$S = \frac{E[R_p] - R_f}{\sigma_p}$$ It measures excess return per unit of total risk (standard deviation); a higher Sharpe ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance.
Define the information ratio in active portfolio management.
$$IR = \frac{\alpha}{\omega} = \frac{E[R_p] - E[R_b]}{\text{tracking error}}$$ It is the active (excess over benchmark) return divided by the tracking error (standard deviation of active returns), measuring skill per unit of active risk.
What does Modern Portfolio Theory's efficient frontier represent?
The efficient frontier is the set of portfolios offering the maximum expected return for each level of risk (or minimum risk for each return). Rational mean-variance investors hold only portfolios on this frontier.
State put-call parity for European options on a non-dividend-paying stock.
$$C - P = S_0 - K e^{-rT}$$ where $C$ and $P$ are call and put prices, $S_0$ the spot price, $K$ the strike, $r$ the risk-free rate and $T$ the time to maturity.
What are the five inputs to the Black–Scholes option pricing formula and the price of a European call?
Inputs: spot $S_0$, strike $K$, time $T$, risk-free rate $r$, volatility $\sigma$. $$C = S_0\,N(d_1) - K e^{-rT} N(d_2),\quad d_1 = \frac{\ln(S_0/K) + (r + \tfrac{1}{2}\sigma^{2})T}{\sigma\sqrt{T}},\quad d_2 = d_1 - \sigma\sqrt{T}$$
Define the option Greeks delta and gamma.
Delta $\Delta = \dfrac{\partial V}{\partial S}$ is the rate of change of option value with the underlying price (the hedge ratio). Gamma $\Gamma = \dfrac{\partial^{2} V}{\partial S^{2}}$ is the rate of change of delta with the underlying, measuring convexity/hedge stability.
Distinguish a forward contract from a futures contract.
A forward is an OTC bilateral agreement to buy/sell an asset at a set price on a future date, customisable but with counterparty risk and no daily settlement. A futures contract is exchange-traded, standardised, margined and marked-to-market daily, with the clearing house reducing counterparty risk.
What is an interest-rate swap and its typical use in investment/ALM?
An interest-rate swap exchanges fixed-rate for floating-rate interest payments on a notional principal. It is used to convert exposure (e.g. fix floating liabilities), hedge interest-rate risk, or alter portfolio duration without trading the underlying bonds.
Define Value at Risk (VaR).
VaR at confidence level $\alpha$ over horizon $T$ is the loss that will not be exceeded with probability $\alpha$: $$P(L \leq \text{VaR}_\alpha) = \alpha$$ e.g. a 1-day 99% VaR of £1m means a 1% chance of losing more than £1m in a day.
Define Expected Shortfall (Tail VaR / Conditional VaR) and why it is preferred to VaR.
$$\text{ES}_\alpha = E[\,L \mid L \geq \text{VaR}_\alpha\,]$$ It is the expected loss given that the loss exceeds VaR. It is preferred because it captures tail severity beyond VaR and is a coherent (sub-additive) risk measure, whereas VaR is not generally sub-additive.
State the four properties of a coherent risk measure.
For a risk measure $\rho$: (1) Monotonicity; (2) Sub-additivity $\rho(X+Y)\leq\rho(X)+\rho(Y)$; (3) Positive homogeneity $\rho(\lambda X)=\lambda\rho(X)$ for $\lambda\geq0$; (4) Translation invariance $\rho(X+c)=\rho(X)-c$.
Compare the three main approaches to calculating VaR.
Variance–covariance (analytic): assumes normal returns, fast but poor for fat tails/options. Historical simulation: re-prices using past return distribution, no distributional assumption but limited by history. Monte Carlo simulation: simulates from a model, flexible for non-linear payoffs but computationally intensive and model-dependent.
What is Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) and how does it differ from traditional siloed risk management?
ERM is a holistic, organisation-wide framework for identifying, assessing, responding to and monitoring all risks in an integrated way, aligned to strategy and risk appetite. Unlike siloed management, it captures risk interactions, diversification and aggregate exposure, treating risk as a source of value, not just downside.
Name a widely used ERM framework and its core components.
The COSO ERM framework. Core components: governance & culture; strategy & objective-setting; performance (risk identification, assessment, prioritisation, response); review & revision; and information, communication & reporting.
Define risk appetite and risk tolerance in an ERM context.
Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk an organisation is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives (high-level, strategic). Risk tolerance is the acceptable variation around specific objectives/limits (operational, often quantified), translating appetite into measurable boundaries.
List the four main risk responses available under an ERM framework.
Avoid (do not undertake the activity), Reduce/Mitigate (controls to lower likelihood or impact), Transfer/Share (insurance, reinsurance, hedging, outsourcing), and Accept/Retain (retain within risk appetite, possibly with capital held).
What is economic capital and how is it typically defined for risk quantification?
Economic capital is the amount of capital an organisation needs to remain solvent over a defined horizon at a chosen confidence level, given its risk profile. It is often defined as the VaR or Expected Shortfall of the change in net asset value (e.g. 99.5% over one year, as in Solvency II).
What is a risk register and a key risk indicator (KRI) in risk reporting?
A risk register is a structured record of identified risks with their likelihood, impact, owner, controls and response actions. A KRI is a quantifiable metric that gives early warning of rising risk exposure (e.g. claims ratio, staff turnover), monitored against thresholds to trigger management action.
Institute and Faculty of Actuaries (IFoA) Exams Pensions, Health and Investment Specialisms (SP4, SP1, SP5, SP6, SP9) FAQ
What is in the Institute and Faculty of Actuaries (IFoA) Exams Pensions, Health and Investment Specialisms (SP4, SP1, SP5, SP6, SP9) syllabus?
Institute and Faculty of Actuaries (IFoA) Exams Pensions, Health and Investment Specialisms (SP4, SP1, SP5, SP6, SP9) is split into 4 chapters: Pensions and Other Benefits (SP4), Health and Care Insurance (SP1), Investment and Finance Specialism (SP5 and SP6) and Enterprise Risk Management (SP9 / CERA). Together they contain 12 topics and 25 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in Institute and Faculty of Actuaries (IFoA) Exams Pensions, Health and Investment Specialisms (SP4, SP1, SP5, SP6, SP9)?
4 chapters, containing 12 topics and 25 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Pensions and Other Benefits (SP4), with 3 topics.
Are there flashcards for Institute and Faculty of Actuaries (IFoA) Exams Pensions, Health and Investment Specialisms (SP4, SP1, SP5, SP6, SP9)?
Yes — a 51-card Pensions, Health and Investment Specialisms (SP4, SP1, SP5, SP6, SP9) deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.