🇵🇰 ICAP CA · subject

ICAP CA Business Management and Strategy Syllabus

The Business Management and Strategy syllabus for ICAP CA in full: 6 chapters and 15 topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Business Management and Strategy flashcards with answers.

6Chapters
15Topics
50Flashcards

Business Management and Strategy syllabus: all 6 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Strategic Analysis

    3 topics
    • External environment analysis (PESTEL)
    • Industry and competitive analysis (Porter)
    • Internal resources and capabilities
  2. Strategic Choice

    2 topics
    • Generic competitive strategies
    • Directions and methods of development
  3. Strategy Implementation

    2 topics
    • Organisational structure and design
    • Change management
  4. Performance Measurement

    3 topics
    • Balanced scorecard
    • Financial and non-financial indicators
    • Benchmarking
  5. Corporate Governance and Ethics

    2 topics
    • Governance structures and board responsibilities
    • Business ethics and corporate social responsibility
  6. Data, Systems and Risk

    3 topics
    • Information systems and digital transformation
    • Enterprise risk management
    • Cybersecurity and data governance

ICAP CA Business Management and Strategy flashcards — 50 questions with answers

  1. What does each letter in the PESTEL framework stand for?

    Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Environmental (ecological), and Legal factors of the macro (external) environment.

  2. What is the purpose of PESTEL analysis?

    To identify, scan and assess the macro-environmental factors that affect an organisation, helping to understand external opportunities and threats and inform strategic planning.

  3. Give two examples each of 'Economic' and 'Social' factors in a PESTEL analysis.

    Economic: interest rates, inflation, exchange rates, economic growth/recession. Social: demographics, lifestyle/cultural trends, education levels, attitudes to work.

  4. What are Porter's Five Forces?

    1) Threat of new entrants, 2) Bargaining power of suppliers, 3) Bargaining power of buyers, 4) Threat of substitutes, 5) Competitive rivalry among existing firms.

  5. In Porter's model, what makes the bargaining power of buyers HIGH?

    Few large buyers, low switching costs, undifferentiated/standardised products, buyers able to integrate backwards, and the product being a high proportion of buyer's costs.

  6. In Porter's Five Forces, what factors raise barriers to entry (reducing threat of new entrants)?

    Economies of scale, high capital requirements, product differentiation/brand loyalty, access to distribution channels, legal/regulatory barriers, and expected retaliation.

  7. What is the threat of substitutes in Porter's framework?

    The risk that customers switch to a different product from another industry that meets the same need; it is high when substitutes are cheaper, of similar/better performance, or have low switching costs.

  8. What does Porter's Value Chain analyse, and what are its two categories of activities?

    It analyses internal activities that create value/competitive advantage. Primary activities: inbound logistics, operations, outbound logistics, marketing & sales, service. Support activities: firm infrastructure, HR management, technology development, procurement.

  9. What is a 'core competence' (Hamel and Prahalad)?

    A distinctive capability or combination of resources/skills that provides competitive advantage, is valuable to customers, and is difficult for competitors to imitate.

  10. What criteria must a resource meet to give sustainable competitive advantage (VRIO/VRIN framework)?

    It must be Valuable, Rare, costly/difficult to Imitate, and the organisation must be Organised to exploit it (Non-substitutable in the VRIN version).

  11. Distinguish between 'resources' and 'capabilities' (competences) in internal analysis.

    Resources are the assets (tangible and intangible) an organisation owns or controls; capabilities/competences are the ways the organisation deploys and combines those resources to perform activities.

  12. What are the three generic competitive strategies in Porter's model?

    1) Cost leadership, 2) Differentiation, and 3) Focus (which can be cost focus or differentiation focus on a narrow segment).

  13. What is 'cost leadership' and how does it achieve competitive advantage?

    Becoming the lowest-cost producer in the industry (via economies of scale, efficiency, experience) so the firm can compete on price or earn above-average margins at the average price.

  14. What does Porter mean by being 'stuck in the middle'?

    A firm that fails to commit to either cost leadership or differentiation achieves neither low cost nor distinctiveness, leading to below-average performance and competitive disadvantage.

  15. What are the four growth directions in Ansoff's matrix?

    Market penetration (existing product/existing market), Product development (new product/existing market), Market development (existing product/new market), Diversification (new product/new market).

  16. In Ansoff's matrix, which strategy carries the highest risk and why?

    Diversification, because the firm operates with both new products and new markets, having least existing knowledge/experience of either.

  17. What are the three main METHODS of strategic development?

    1) Organic (internal) development, 2) Mergers and acquisitions (M&A), and 3) Strategic alliances/joint ventures.

  18. Distinguish between related and unrelated (conglomerate) diversification.

    Related diversification moves into industries linked to the current business (sharing value-chain activities/synergies); unrelated (conglomerate) diversification moves into industries with no obvious connection to existing operations.

  19. What is the difference between horizontal and vertical integration?

    Horizontal integration acquires/merges with competitors at the same stage of the value chain; vertical integration moves backward (towards suppliers) or forward (towards customers/distribution) along the supply chain.

  20. What are the criteria for evaluating a strategy under the 'Suitability, Acceptability, Feasibility' (SAF/SFA) test?

    Suitability: does it address the situation (environment/capabilities)? Acceptability: are the expected returns, risk and stakeholder reactions acceptable? Feasibility: does the firm have the resources and capabilities to implement it?

Show the other 30 Business Management and Strategy flashcards
  1. Name the building blocks (structural configurations) in Mintzberg's organisation.

    Strategic apex, middle line, operating core, technostructure, and support staff (with culture/ideology surrounding them).

  2. What are the main advantages and disadvantages of a functional organisational structure?

    Advantages: specialisation, economies of scale, clear career paths, efficiency. Disadvantages: narrow 'silo' focus, slow decision-making, poor cross-functional coordination, less adaptable to change/diversity.

  3. What is a divisional (M-form) organisational structure and when is it suitable?

    An organisation split into semi-autonomous divisions by product, market or geography, each with its own functions. Suitable for large, diversified firms needing accountability and responsiveness, though it can duplicate resources.

  4. What is a matrix structure and what is its main drawback?

    A structure where employees report to two bosses (e.g. functional and project/product manager) combining functional efficiency with project focus. Main drawback: dual authority causing conflict, confusion and slower decisions.

  5. Distinguish between centralised and decentralised organisational structures.

    Centralised: decision-making authority concentrated at the top (consistent control, slower local response). Decentralised: authority delegated to lower levels (faster local decisions, motivation, but risk of inconsistency and weaker control).

  6. What are the stages of Lewin's three-step change model?

    1) Unfreeze (create motivation/recognise the need for change), 2) Change/Move (implement the new behaviours), 3) Refreeze (embed and stabilise the change as the new norm).

  7. What are the forces in Lewin's force-field analysis?

    Driving forces (pushing for change) and restraining forces (resisting change); change occurs by strengthening driving forces and/or weakening restraining forces.

  8. What are the eight steps of Kotter's change management model?

    1) Create urgency, 2) Build a guiding coalition, 3) Form a strategic vision, 4) Enlist a volunteer army/communicate the vision, 5) Enable action by removing barriers, 6) Generate short-term wins, 7) Sustain acceleration, 8) Institute/anchor the change in culture.

  9. List common reasons employees resist organisational change.

    Fear of the unknown, loss of status/job security, self-interest, distrust of management, low tolerance for change, poor communication, and disagreement over the need for or method of change.

  10. What are the four perspectives of Kaplan and Norton's Balanced Scorecard?

    1) Financial, 2) Customer, 3) Internal business processes, and 4) Learning and growth (innovation).

  11. What key question does each Balanced Scorecard perspective answer?

    Financial: 'How do we look to shareholders?' Customer: 'How do customers see us?' Internal process: 'What must we excel at?' Learning & growth: 'Can we continue to improve and create value?'

  12. Why was the Balanced Scorecard developed?

    To overcome reliance on purely financial (lagging) measures by adding non-financial and forward-looking (leading) measures, giving a balanced view that links strategy to performance across multiple perspectives.

  13. Distinguish between financial and non-financial performance indicators, with examples.

    Financial indicators are monetary (e.g. ROCE, profit margin, EPS, EVA). Non-financial indicators are qualitative/operational (e.g. customer satisfaction, defect rate, on-time delivery, staff turnover, market share).

  14. What is the difference between a 'lead' indicator and a 'lag' indicator?

    A lag indicator measures past results/outcomes (e.g. profit); a lead indicator measures the drivers that predict future performance (e.g. customer satisfaction, training hours).

  15. State the formula for Return on Capital Employed (ROCE).

    ROCE = Operating profit (PBIT) / Capital employed x 100, where capital employed = total assets less current liabilities (or equity + long-term debt).

  16. What is benchmarking?

    The systematic process of comparing an organisation's performance, processes or practices against a standard or 'best-in-class' reference point to identify gaps and drive improvement.

  17. Name and describe the main types of benchmarking.

    Internal (comparison between units within the same organisation), Competitive (against direct competitors), Functional/Process (against best practice in a particular function regardless of industry), and Generic/Strategic (against best-in-class organisations in any industry).

  18. What are the typical steps in a benchmarking exercise?

    Plan (select what to benchmark and the benchmark partner), Collect/analyse data, identify performance gaps, set targets, implement improvements, and monitor/review results.

  19. Define corporate governance.

    The system of rules, practices, relationships and processes by which a company is directed and controlled, balancing the interests of shareholders, management, and other stakeholders and ensuring accountability.

  20. What are the key responsibilities of a board of directors?

    Setting strategy and objectives, overseeing/monitoring management, ensuring adequate risk management and internal control, ensuring accountability to shareholders, and safeguarding the company's assets and reputation.

  21. Why is the separation of the roles of Chairman and CEO recommended in corporate governance?

    To avoid excessive concentration of power in one individual, provide a balance of authority, ensure independent oversight of executive management, and improve board accountability.

  22. What is the role of non-executive directors (NEDs) in good governance?

    To provide independent judgement and objectivity, scrutinise and challenge executive decisions, oversee key committees (audit, remuneration, nomination), and protect shareholder/stakeholder interests.

  23. Name the three main board committees in a corporate governance structure and one role of each.

    Audit committee (oversees financial reporting and internal controls/audit), Remuneration committee (sets director pay independently), and Nomination committee (oversees board appointments/succession).

  24. What is the 'agency problem' in corporate governance?

    The conflict of interest where managers (agents) may pursue their own interests rather than maximising the wealth of shareholders (principals); governance mechanisms aim to align these interests.

  25. What is the difference between business ethics and corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

    Business ethics concerns the moral principles and standards guiding behaviour/decisions; CSR is the organisation's broader responsibility and voluntary actions towards society, stakeholders and the environment beyond legal/profit obligations.

  26. What are the four levels of Carroll's CSR pyramid?

    From base to top: Economic responsibilities (be profitable), Legal (obey the law), Ethical (do what is right/fair), and Philanthropic (be a good corporate citizen/contribute to society).

  27. What is the 'triple bottom line' in the context of CSR?

    Measuring organisational performance against three dimensions: People (social), Planet (environmental), and Profit (economic) — often called the 3 Ps.

  28. What is digital transformation, and what does ERP stand for and do?

    Digital transformation is the integration of digital technology into all areas of a business to fundamentally change operations and value delivery. ERP (Enterprise Resource Planning) is integrated software that manages and links core business processes (finance, HR, supply chain, etc.) in a single system/database.

  29. What is Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) and what are the main risk response strategies?

    ERM is a structured, organisation-wide process for identifying, assessing, responding to and monitoring risks to achieve objectives. The four main responses (TARA) are: Transfer, Avoid, Reduce (mitigate), and Accept (retain).

  30. Define the 'CIA triad' in cybersecurity and explain 'data governance'.

    The CIA triad is the three core security objectives: Confidentiality (preventing unauthorised access), Integrity (keeping data accurate/unaltered), and Availability (data accessible when needed). Data governance is the framework of policies, roles and controls ensuring data is managed accurately, securely, and in compliance throughout its lifecycle.

ICAP CA Business Management and Strategy FAQ

What is in the ICAP CA Business Management and Strategy syllabus?

ICAP CA Business Management and Strategy is split into 6 chapters: Strategic Analysis, Strategic Choice, Strategy Implementation, Performance Measurement, Corporate Governance and Ethics and Data, Systems and Risk. Together they contain 15 topics.

How many chapters are in ICAP CA Business Management and Strategy?

6 chapters, containing 15 topics. The largest chapter is Strategic Analysis, with 3 topics.

Are there flashcards for ICAP CA Business Management and Strategy?

Yes — a 50-card Business Management and Strategy deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.