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IBPS SO Professional Knowledge - Law Officer (Scale I) Syllabus
The Professional Knowledge - Law Officer (Scale I) syllabus for IBPS SO in full: 4 chapters and 16 topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Professional Knowledge - Law Officer (Scale I) flashcards with answers.
Professional Knowledge - Law Officer (Scale I) syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Banking and Negotiable Instruments Law
4 topics- Banking Regulation Act and RBI Act
- Negotiable Instruments Act (cheques, dishonour, Section 138)
- Banker-Customer Relationship and Obligations
- Banking Ombudsman and Consumer Protection
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Security, Recovery and Insolvency Laws
4 topics- Law of Contract and Indian Contract Act
- Indemnity, Guarantee, Pledge, Mortgage and Hypothecation
- SARFAESI Act and DRT (RDDBFI Act)
- Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC)
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Corporate and Compliance Law
4 topics- Companies Act and Partnership / LLP Law
- Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) and KYC / AML
- Limitation Act and Transfer of Property Act
- FEMA and Foreign Exchange Regulations
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Constitutional and Allied Laws
4 topics- Constitution of India: Fundamental Rights and Writs
- Information Technology Act and Cyber Law
- Right to Information Act
- Law of Evidence and Civil / Criminal Procedure Basics
IBPS SO Professional Knowledge - Law Officer (Scale I) flashcards — 51 questions with answers
Under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, what is the definition of 'banking'?
Accepting deposits of money from the public for the purpose of lending or investment, repayable on demand or otherwise, and withdrawable by cheque, draft, order or otherwise.
Which Act established the Reserve Bank of India and in what year did the RBI commence operations?
The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934; the RBI commenced operations on 1 April 1935.
Under the Banking Regulation Act, what is the minimum percentage of demand and time liabilities a bank must keep as the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), and who prescribes it?
SLR is prescribed by the RBI; the Act allows it to be set up to a statutory ceiling, currently maintained in liquid assets (cash, gold, approved securities). The RBI determines the exact rate (currently 18%).
Which section of the Banking Regulation Act gives RBI power to give directions to banking companies in the public interest?
Section 35A empowers the RBI to issue directions to banking companies in the public interest or in the interest of depositors/banking policy.
Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, what are the three types of negotiable instruments recognised by the Act?
Promissory note, bill of exchange, and cheque.
What is the definition of a 'cheque' under Section 6 of the Negotiable Instruments Act?
A bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and not expressed to be payable otherwise than on demand; it includes the electronic image of a truncated cheque and a cheque in electronic form.
What is the punishment for dishonour of a cheque under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act?
Imprisonment up to 2 years, or fine up to twice the cheque amount, or both.
What are the key conditions/timelines that must be satisfied to prosecute under Section 138 of the NI Act?
Cheque must be presented within validity (3 months); on dishonour the payee must serve a demand notice within 30 days; the drawer gets 15 days to pay; if unpaid, complaint must be filed within 1 month after the 15-day period expires.
Under the NI Act, what is the legal validity period of a cheque from its date of issue?
Three months from the date of the cheque (as per RBI directive); after this it becomes a stale cheque.
What is meant by 'crossing' of a cheque and what is the effect of a general crossing?
Crossing means drawing two parallel transverse lines across the cheque; a general crossing means the cheque can only be paid into a bank account (not over the counter).
In the banker-customer relationship, what is the legal relationship when a customer deposits money in a bank?
The relationship is that of debtor (bank) and creditor (customer); the deposited money becomes the bank's property and the bank owes a debt to the customer.
What is the banker's 'right of set-off' and 'right of lien'?
Right of set-off allows a bank to combine two accounts of the same customer to adjust a debit balance against a credit balance; banker's lien is the right to retain securities/goods of a customer for a general balance due (general lien under Section 171 of the Contract Act).
What is a banker's primary obligation regarding secrecy of customer accounts, and name an exception.
The bank has a duty of secrecy/confidentiality of customer account information; exceptions include disclosure under law (e.g., Income Tax/court order), RBI directions, customer's consent, and disclosure in the bank's own interest.
Under what scheme are banking customer complaints redressed by RBI, and what is its current name?
The Reserve Bank - Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2021 (RB-IOS), which merged the earlier Banking, NBFC, and Digital Transactions Ombudsman Schemes into 'One Nation One Ombudsman'.
Under the RB-Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, when can a customer approach the Ombudsman?
After making a written complaint to the bank, if no reply is received within 30 days, or the complaint is rejected, or the customer is not satisfied; the complaint to the Ombudsman must be made within one year of the bank's reply (or 13 months of the cause of action if no reply).
What is the definition of a valid 'contract' under Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
An agreement enforceable by law is a contract. (Contract = Agreement + Enforceability by law.)
What are the essential elements of a valid contract under the Indian Contract Act?
Offer and acceptance, intention to create legal relations, lawful consideration, capacity of parties, free consent, lawful object, certainty, possibility of performance, and not expressly declared void.
Under Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, what is 'consideration'?
When at the desire of the promisor, the promisee or any other person has done or abstained from doing, or does/abstains, or promises to do/abstain, something — such act, abstinence or promise is called consideration.
Under the Indian Contract Act, what makes consent 'free' and what vitiates it?
Consent is free when not caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation, or mistake. Coercion/undue influence/fraud/misrepresentation make a contract voidable; bilateral mistake of fact makes it void.
Distinguish between a 'contract of indemnity' and a 'contract of guarantee' under the Indian Contract Act.
Indemnity (Sec 124): one party promises to save the other from loss caused by the promisor's conduct or another's; involves two parties. Guarantee (Sec 126): a promise to perform/discharge the liability of a third person on default; involves three parties (surety, principal debtor, creditor).
Show the other 31 Professional Knowledge - Law Officer (Scale I) flashcards
Under the Indian Contract Act, what is a 'pledge' and who are the parties?
Pledge (Sec 172) is the bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise. The bailor is the 'pawnor' and the bailee is the 'pawnee'. Possession of goods is transferred.
Distinguish between pledge, hypothecation, and mortgage as forms of security.
Pledge: movable goods, possession with creditor. Hypothecation: movable goods, possession remains with borrower (charge created). Mortgage: immovable property given as security under the Transfer of Property Act.
What is a 'mortgage' under Section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
The transfer of an interest in specific immovable property for the purpose of securing the payment of money advanced or to be advanced by way of loan, an existing or future debt, or performance of an engagement giving rise to a pecuniary liability.
Name the main types of mortgage recognised under the Transfer of Property Act.
Simple mortgage, mortgage by conditional sale, usufructuary mortgage, English mortgage, mortgage by deposit of title deeds (equitable mortgage), and anomalous mortgage.
What does the SARFAESI Act, 2002 stand for and what is its main purpose?
Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act; it enables banks/FIs to enforce security interest and recover NPAs without court intervention by taking possession of secured assets.
Under Section 13(2) of the SARFAESI Act, what notice period must a secured creditor give the borrower before enforcement?
A 60-day notice must be given to the borrower to discharge the liability after the account is classified as a Non-Performing Asset (NPA); on default, the creditor can take possession of the secured asset under Section 13(4).
What is the minimum loan default amount required for SARFAESI Act to be invoked, and is it applicable to agricultural land?
SARFAESI applies where the secured debt is more than Rs. 1 lakh and the default exceeds 20% of principal and interest; it does NOT apply to agricultural land.
What does DRT stand for, and which Act established the Debt Recovery Tribunals?
DRT = Debts Recovery Tribunal, established under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993 (RDDBFI Act / RDB Act). Appeals go to the Debts Recovery Appellate Tribunal (DRAT).
What is the minimum amount of debt for which a bank can approach a DRT under the RDDBFI Act?
Rs. 20 lakh or more (the jurisdiction of DRTs applies to debts of 20 lakh and above).
What does the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016 aim to do, and who is the regulator?
It provides a consolidated, time-bound framework for resolution/insolvency of corporate persons, partnerships and individuals to maximise asset value. The regulator is the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI).
Under the IBC, what is the maximum time period for completion of the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP)?
330 days including litigation/extensions (originally 180 days, extendable by 90 days, with an overall ceiling of 330 days).
Under the IBC, what is the role of the 'Committee of Creditors' (CoC) and the Resolution Professional (RP)?
The CoC, comprising financial creditors, decides on the resolution plan (approval needs 66% voting share). The RP manages the corporate debtor as a going concern during CIRP and runs the process under IBBI/NCLT oversight.
Which tribunals adjudicate insolvency under the IBC for companies and for individuals/partnerships?
NCLT (National Company Law Tribunal) for corporate persons (appeals to NCLAT); DRT (Debts Recovery Tribunal) for individuals and partnership firms (appeals to DRAT).
Under the Companies Act, 2013, what is the minimum and maximum number of members for a private company and a public company?
Private company: minimum 2, maximum 200 members. Public company: minimum 7 members, no maximum limit.
What is a 'One Person Company' (OPC) introduced under the Companies Act, 2013?
A company incorporated with only one person as a member (with a nominee), combining the benefits of a sole proprietorship and a company with limited liability and separate legal personality.
Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, is registration of a partnership firm compulsory, and what is the effect of non-registration?
Registration is optional but an unregistered firm cannot file a suit to enforce a contractual right against a third party or among partners; it suffers legal disabilities under Section 69.
What is an LLP and which Act governs it; how does liability differ from a general partnership?
LLP = Limited Liability Partnership, governed by the LLP Act, 2008. It is a separate legal entity with perpetual succession; partners' liability is limited to their agreed contribution, unlike unlimited liability in a general partnership.
What does the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002 aim to prevent, and which agency enforces it?
It aims to prevent money laundering and provides for confiscation of property derived from laundering. It is enforced by the Enforcement Directorate (ED); the Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND) receives reports.
Under PMLA/KYC norms, what are the three core components of the KYC framework for banks?
Customer Acceptance Policy, Customer Identification Procedures (CIP), and ongoing Monitoring of Transactions (along with Risk Management).
Under PMLA rules, what reports must banks file with FIU-IND and what is the CTR threshold?
Cash Transaction Reports (CTR) for cash transactions above Rs. 10 lakh (or series in a month), Suspicious Transaction Reports (STR), Counterfeit Currency Reports (CCR), and Non-Profit Organisation Transaction Reports (NTR).
Under the Limitation Act, 1963, what is the general period of limitation for a suit to recover money lent (a simple money debt)?
Three years from the date the loan is made or the cause of action arises (suits based on contract generally have a 3-year limitation).
Under the Limitation Act, what is the limitation period for the enforcement of a mortgage / suit for foreclosure or sale of mortgaged property?
Twelve years for suits relating to immovable property and enforcement of mortgages (e.g., suit for sale/foreclosure of mortgaged property).
Under the Transfer of Property Act, what is the doctrine of 'lis pendens' (Section 52)?
During the pendency of a suit in which any right to immovable property is in question, the property cannot be transferred or dealt with so as to affect the rights of any party under any decree made in the suit.
What does FEMA, 1999 regulate, and what major statute did it replace?
The Foreign Exchange Management Act regulates foreign exchange transactions, external trade, and payments to facilitate orderly forex markets; it replaced the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA), 1973, shifting from control to management.
Under FEMA, distinguish between 'current account transactions' and 'capital account transactions'.
Current account transactions (trade, services, income) are generally freely permitted with some restrictions. Capital account transactions (those altering assets/liabilities outside/inside India, e.g., investments, loans) are regulated by RBI and generally restricted unless permitted.
Which Articles of the Constitution of India guarantee the Right to Equality and the Right to Constitutional Remedies?
Right to Equality: Articles 14-18. Right to Constitutional Remedies: Article 32 (Supreme Court) — called the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution by Dr. Ambedkar; Article 226 empowers High Courts.
Name the five types of writs that can be issued under Articles 32 and 226 of the Constitution.
Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto.
What does the writ of 'Habeas Corpus' and the writ of 'Mandamus' command, respectively?
Habeas Corpus ('to have the body') directs a person/authority to produce a detained person before the court to test the legality of detention. Mandamus ('we command') directs a public authority to perform a public/legal duty it has failed to perform.
Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, what is the legal recognition given to electronic records and digital/electronic signatures?
The IT Act gives legal recognition to electronic records and digital/electronic signatures, making them valid and admissible; it provides for authentication of electronic records and addresses cybercrimes and data protection.
Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, what is the normal time limit for a Public Information Officer (PIO) to provide information, and the special limit for life/liberty cases?
Information must normally be provided within 30 days of the request; where the information concerns the life or liberty of a person, it must be provided within 48 hours.
Under the Indian Evidence Act, distinguish between 'examination-in-chief', 'cross-examination', and the burden of proof in civil vs criminal cases.
Examination-in-chief is by the party calling the witness; cross-examination is by the adverse party; re-examination follows. Burden of proof: in criminal cases the prosecution must prove guilt 'beyond reasonable doubt', while in civil cases it is decided on 'preponderance of probabilities'.
IBPS SO Professional Knowledge - Law Officer (Scale I) FAQ
What is in the IBPS SO Professional Knowledge - Law Officer (Scale I) syllabus?
IBPS SO Professional Knowledge - Law Officer (Scale I) is split into 4 chapters: Banking and Negotiable Instruments Law, Security, Recovery and Insolvency Laws, Corporate and Compliance Law and Constitutional and Allied Laws. Together they contain 16 topics.
How many chapters are in IBPS SO Professional Knowledge - Law Officer (Scale I)?
4 chapters, containing 16 topics. The largest chapter is Banking and Negotiable Instruments Law, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for IBPS SO Professional Knowledge - Law Officer (Scale I)?
Yes — a 51-card Professional Knowledge - Law Officer (Scale I) deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.