🇮🇳 GATE Ecology and Evolution · subject
GATE Ecology and Evolution Applied Ecology & Evolution Syllabus
The Applied Ecology & Evolution syllabus for GATE Ecology and Evolution in full: 4 chapters, 16 topics and 7 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Applied Ecology & Evolution flashcards with answers.
Applied Ecology & Evolution syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Biodiversity and Conservation
7 topics- Importance of conserving biodiversity
- Ecosystem services
- Threats to biodiversity
- Invasive species
- In-situ conservation
- Endemism
- Biodiversity hotspots
- Protected areas
- Ex-situ conservation
- Conservation genetics
- Genetic diversity
- Inbreeding depression
- DNA fingerprinting
- DNA barcoding
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Disease Ecology and Evolution
4 topics- Epidemiology
- Zoonotic diseases
- Antibiotic resistance
- Vector Control
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Plant and Animal Breeding
2 topics- Marker assisted breeding
- Genetic basis of economically important traits
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Global Climate Change
3 topics- Causes
- Consequences
- Mitigation
GATE Ecology and Evolution Applied Ecology & Evolution flashcards — 50 questions with answers
Define biodiversity and name its three principal levels of organization.
Biodiversity is the variety and variability of life at all levels. Its three levels are: (1) genetic diversity (within species), (2) species diversity (between species), and (3) ecosystem (community/habitat) diversity.
List the four broad utilitarian/ethical reasons commonly cited for conserving biodiversity.
(1) Narrowly utilitarian (direct economic products: food, medicine, timber), (2) Broadly utilitarian (ecosystem services: $\ce{O2}$, pollination, climate regulation), (3) Ethical/intrinsic value of all species, and (4) Aesthetic, cultural and recreational value.
What are ecosystem services? Give the four standard categories used by the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment.
Ecosystem services are benefits humans obtain from ecosystems. The four categories are: provisioning (food, water, timber), regulating (climate, flood, disease control), supporting (nutrient cycling, soil formation, primary production), and cultural (recreational, spiritual, aesthetic) services.
Which ecosystem-service category does pollination by insects fall under, and why is it economically significant?
Pollination is a regulating (and supporting) service. It underpins reproduction of a large fraction of crop and wild plant species, making it essential to agricultural yield and food security.
Name 'The Evil Quartet' — the four major anthropogenic causes of biodiversity loss.
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation, (2) Over-exploitation, (3) Invasive (alien) species introductions, and (4) Co-extinctions.
Which of the Evil Quartet is considered the single most important cause of species extinction?
Habitat loss and fragmentation — most notably tropical deforestation (e.g., destruction of the Amazon rainforest).
What is a co-extinction? Give an example.
Co-extinction is the loss of a species that depends on another species that goes extinct. Example: when a host fish goes extinct its obligate parasites also disappear; or extinction of a plant eliminates its specialist pollinator.
Define an invasive (alien) species.
An invasive species is a non-native (introduced/exotic) organism that establishes, spreads, and causes ecological or economic harm in its new range, often by out-competing, preying on, or displacing native species.
Give two classic examples of invasive species causing biodiversity damage and the harm each caused.
(1) Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) — clogs waterbodies and causes oxygen depletion; (2) Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria — drove extinction of ~200 native cichlid fish species. (Also: Lantana, African catfish Clarias gariepinus in India.)
What traits typically make a species a successful invader?
High reproductive rate, rapid dispersal, broad environmental tolerance (generalist), fast growth, lack of natural predators/parasites in the new range, and ability to out-compete natives for resources.
Distinguish in-situ from ex-situ conservation.
In-situ conservation protects species within their natural habitats (national parks, sanctuaries, hotspots). Ex-situ conservation protects species outside their natural habitats (zoos, botanical gardens, gene/seed banks, cryopreservation).
List at least four major methods/sites of in-situ conservation.
Biosphere reserves, national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, biodiversity hotspots, sacred groves, and community/conservation reserves.
Define endemism / an endemic species.
Endemism is the restriction of a species (or taxon) to a particular geographic area and nowhere else on Earth. Such a species is said to be endemic to that region.
Why are oceanic islands and isolated mountains often centres of high endemism?
Geographic isolation limits gene flow and immigration, so populations diverge in situ (allopatric speciation) and the resulting species are confined to that isolated area, producing many narrow-range endemics.
What two criteria must a region satisfy to be designated a biodiversity hotspot (Myers' criteria)?
(1) It must contain at least $1500$ endemic vascular plant species ($\geq 0.5\%$ of the world total), and (2) it must have lost at least $70\%$ of its original primary vegetation (i.e., be highly threatened).
How many biodiversity hotspots are currently recognized worldwide, and which ones include parts of India?
There are about $36$ recognized global biodiversity hotspots. Four include parts of India: the Himalaya, the Western Ghats–Sri Lanka, the Indo-Burma region, and Sundaland (Nicobar Islands).
Although hotspots cover a tiny land area, what fraction of endemic species do they harbour?
The hotspots collectively cover roughly $2.3\%$ of Earth's land surface yet contain a very high concentration of endemics — historically credited with holding on the order of $\sim 50\%$ of endemic plants and large fractions of endemic vertebrates.
Differentiate a national park from a wildlife sanctuary in the Indian protected-area system.
In a national park, no human activity, grazing, or private tenure rights are permitted and boundaries are fixed by law. In a wildlife sanctuary, some regulated human activities (e.g., grazing, collection of minor produce) may be allowed and protection focuses on particular species.
What is a biosphere reserve and what are its three functional zones?
A biosphere reserve is a large protected area for conserving whole ecosystems plus their genetic and cultural resources. Its zones are: (1) core zone (legally protected, no human interference), (2) buffer zone (limited research/education), and (3) transition/manipulation zone (human settlements and sustainable use).
Name four ex-situ conservation facilities/techniques.
Zoological parks (zoos), botanical gardens, seed banks / gene banks, and cryopreservation of gametes/embryos in liquid nitrogen ($\ce{N2}$); also tissue culture and in-vitro fertilization.
Show the other 30 Applied Ecology & Evolution flashcards
What is cryopreservation and at what temperature is it typically carried out?
Cryopreservation is the long-term storage of viable cells, gametes, embryos, or tissues at ultra-low temperature, usually in liquid nitrogen at about $-196\,^{\circ}\mathrm{C}$, halting metabolism so material can be revived later.
What is conservation genetics concerned with?
Conservation genetics applies genetic theory and techniques to preserve species, focusing on maintaining genetic diversity, minimizing inbreeding, managing small/fragmented populations, and preventing loss of evolutionary potential and extinction.
Why is genetic diversity important for the long-term survival of a population?
Genetic diversity supplies the variation natural selection acts on, enabling adaptation to changing environments, disease, and climate. Low diversity reduces adaptive potential and raises extinction risk.
State the Hardy–Weinberg expected heterozygosity for a biallelic locus with allele frequencies $p$ and $q$.
Expected heterozygosity is $H_e = 2pq$, where $p + q = 1$. It is a common measure of genetic diversity at a locus.
How does effective population size $N_e$ relate to loss of heterozygosity per generation?
Heterozygosity is lost by genetic drift at a rate of about $\frac{1}{2N_e}$ per generation, so retained heterozygosity after $t$ generations is approximately $H_t = H_0\left(1 - \frac{1}{2N_e}\right)^{t}$. Small $N_e$ means rapid loss of diversity.
Define inbreeding depression.
Inbreeding depression is the reduction in fitness (lower survival, fertility, growth, or disease resistance) in offspring of related individuals, caused mainly by increased homozygosity that exposes deleterious recessive alleles and reduces heterozygote advantage.
What is the inbreeding coefficient $F$ and what is its value for offspring of a full-sib mating?
$F$ is the probability that the two alleles at a locus in an individual are identical by descent. For offspring of a full-sibling mating, $F = \frac{1}{4} = 0.25$.
How does inbreeding change genotype frequencies relative to Hardy–Weinberg?
With inbreeding coefficient $F$: homozygote frequencies increase to $p^{2}+pqF$ and $q^{2}+pqF$, while heterozygotes decrease to $2pq(1-F)$. Heterozygosity falls as $H = H_0(1-F)$.
What is DNA fingerprinting and what type of sequences does it exploit?
DNA fingerprinting is a technique to identify individuals from their unique DNA pattern. It exploits highly polymorphic repetitive sequences — Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTRs), including minisatellites and microsatellites (STRs) — that vary in repeat number among individuals.
Who developed DNA fingerprinting and name two of its applications.
Alec Jeffreys (1984) developed DNA fingerprinting. Applications include forensic identification, paternity/parentage testing, and in conservation: detecting poaching, assessing relatedness, and measuring genetic diversity in wild populations.
What is DNA barcoding and which gene is the standard barcode for animals?
DNA barcoding identifies species using a short, standardized DNA sequence. For animals the standard barcode is a ~$650$ bp region of the mitochondrial gene cytochrome c oxidase subunit I (COI / cox1).
Which marker regions are standard DNA barcodes for plants and for fungi?
Plants: chloroplast genes rbcL and matK (often combined). Fungi: the nuclear ribosomal Internal Transcribed Spacer (ITS) region.
Contrast DNA fingerprinting and DNA barcoding in terms of purpose.
DNA fingerprinting distinguishes individuals within a species (uses hypervariable repeats). DNA barcoding distinguishes species from one another (uses a conserved standardized gene region with interspecific variation).
Define epidemiology and distinguish incidence from prevalence.
Epidemiology is the study of the distribution and determinants of health/disease in populations. Incidence is the rate of new cases over a period; prevalence is the proportion of the population having the disease at a given time (existing cases).
Write the formula for the basic reproduction number $R_0$ and state its epidemiological threshold.
$R_0$ is the average number of secondary infections from one case in a fully susceptible population, e.g. $R_0 = \beta \, c \, d$ (transmission probability $\times$ contact rate $\times$ duration). If $R_0 > 1$ an epidemic spreads; if $R_0 < 1$ it dies out.
State the herd immunity threshold in terms of $R_0$.
The critical proportion of the population that must be immune to halt spread is $p_c = 1 - \frac{1}{R_0}$. Above this fraction, sustained transmission cannot occur.
What are the compartments of the basic SIR epidemic model?
S = Susceptible, I = Infected (infectious), R = Recovered (or removed/immune). Individuals flow $\ce{S -> I -> R}$, governed by transmission rate $\beta$ and recovery rate $\gamma$, with $R_0 = \frac{\beta}{\gamma}$.
Define a zoonotic disease and give three examples.
A zoonotic disease (zoonosis) is an infectious disease transmitted from vertebrate animals to humans. Examples: rabies (dogs/bats), plague (rodents), and avian/swine influenza; also COVID-19, Nipah (bats), and brucellosis.
Distinguish a reservoir host from a vector in disease transmission.
A reservoir host is an animal in which a pathogen is maintained long-term (the source of infection), whereas a vector is an organism (often an arthropod) that transmits the pathogen from reservoir/host to a new host without necessarily being the disease's reservoir.
Name the pathogen, vector, and reservoir for plague.
Pathogen: the bacterium $\textit{Yersinia pestis}$; vector: the rat flea ($\textit{Xenopsylla cheopis}$); reservoir: rodents (especially rats). It is a classic vector-borne zoonosis.
What is antibiotic resistance and what is its primary evolutionary driver?
Antibiotic resistance is the ability of bacteria to survive and grow despite antibiotic exposure. Its primary driver is natural selection: antibiotics kill susceptible cells while resistant variants survive and proliferate, especially under overuse/misuse of antibiotics.
List four biochemical mechanisms by which bacteria resist antibiotics.
(1) Enzymatic inactivation of the drug (e.g., $\beta$-lactamase), (2) target-site modification, (3) reduced uptake / decreased membrane permeability, and (4) active efflux pumps that expel the drug.
How does horizontal gene transfer accelerate the spread of antibiotic resistance?
Resistance genes (often on plasmids/transposons/integrons) spread between bacteria — even across species — via conjugation, transformation, and transduction, so resistance disseminates without requiring new mutations in each lineage.
Distinguish vertical from horizontal gene transfer of resistance genes.
Vertical transfer passes resistance genes from parent to daughter cells during division (clonal inheritance). Horizontal transfer moves genes between unrelated cells via conjugation, transformation, or transduction, enabling rapid cross-lineage spread.
What is vector control and name four major strategies.
Vector control is the limitation or eradication of disease-transmitting organisms to interrupt pathogen transmission. Strategies: (1) chemical (insecticides, larvicides, indoor residual spraying, treated bed nets), (2) biological (predators like Gambusia fish, Bti), (3) environmental (source reduction, draining stagnant water), and (4) genetic (sterile insect technique, Wolbachia).
What is the Sterile Insect Technique (SIT) in vector control?
SIT releases large numbers of sterilized (e.g., irradiated) male insects that mate with wild females, producing no viable offspring. This reduces the next generation's population and suppresses vector numbers without insecticides.
How does the larvivorous fish Gambusia function as a biological vector-control agent?
$\textit{Gambusia}$ (mosquitofish) is introduced into water bodies where it eats mosquito larvae and pupae, reducing the emergence of adult mosquitoes and thus malaria/dengue vector populations. (Note: it can itself become invasive.)
What is the Red List, and which IUCN category lies just above 'Extinct in the Wild'?
The IUCN Red List classifies species' extinction risk. The threatened categories, from least to most severe, are Vulnerable (VU) → Endangered (EN) → Critically Endangered (CR); above CR are Extinct in the Wild (EW) and Extinct (EX).
Define a keystone species and explain its relevance to conservation.
A keystone species has a disproportionately large effect on community structure relative to its abundance. Its removal triggers major ecosystem change or collapse, so conserving keystone species (e.g., sea otters, top predators) protects whole communities.
What is the rivet-popper hypothesis and what does it illustrate about biodiversity loss?
Proposed by Paul Ehrlich, it compares species in an ecosystem to rivets holding an airplane (ecosystem) together. Losing a few rivets (species) may be tolerated, but progressive loss eventually causes catastrophic collapse — illustrating that each species contributes to ecosystem stability and that loss of keystone species is especially damaging.
GATE Ecology and Evolution Applied Ecology & Evolution FAQ
What is in the GATE Ecology and Evolution Applied Ecology & Evolution syllabus?
GATE Ecology and Evolution Applied Ecology & Evolution is split into 4 chapters: Biodiversity and Conservation, Disease Ecology and Evolution, Plant and Animal Breeding and Global Climate Change. Together they contain 16 topics and 7 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in GATE Ecology and Evolution Applied Ecology & Evolution?
4 chapters, containing 16 topics and 7 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Biodiversity and Conservation, with 7 topics.
Are there flashcards for GATE Ecology and Evolution Applied Ecology & Evolution?
Yes — a 50-card Applied Ecology & Evolution deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.