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GATE Civil Engineering Environmental Engineering Syllabus

The Environmental Engineering syllabus for GATE Civil Engineering in full: 4 chapters, 21 topics and 7 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Environmental Engineering flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
21Topics
7Sub-topics
50Flashcards

Environmental Engineering syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Water and Waste Water Quality and Treatment

    6 topics
    • Basics of Water Quality Standards
      • Physical parameters
      • Chemical parameters
      • Biological parameters
    • Water Quality Index
    • Unit Processes and Operations
    • Water Requirement
    • Water Distribution System
    • Drinking Water Treatment
  2. Sewerage System Design

    6 topics
    • Quantity of Domestic Wastewater
    • Primary Treatment
    • Secondary Treatment
    • Effluent Discharge Standards
    • Sludge Disposal
    • Reuse of Treated Sewage for Different Applications
  3. Air Pollution

    5 topics
    • Types of Pollutants
    • Sources and Impacts
    • Air Pollution Control
    • Air Quality Standards
    • Air Quality Index and Limits
  4. Municipal Solid Wastes

    4 topics
    • Characteristics
    • Generation
    • Collection and Transportation of Solid Wastes
    • Engineered Systems for Solid Waste Management
      • Reuse/Recycle
      • Energy Recovery
      • Treatment
      • Disposal

GATE Civil Engineering Environmental Engineering flashcards — 50 questions with answers

  1. What does turbidity measure in water, and in which unit is it expressed?

    Turbidity measures the optical cloudiness caused by suspended/colloidal particles scattering light. It is expressed in NTU (Nephelometric Turbidity Units). Drinking water should ideally have turbidity $< 1$ NTU (acceptable up to $5$ NTU per IS 10500).

  2. Define BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) and state the standard test conditions.

    BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen consumed by microorganisms to biochemically oxidize organic matter. The standard test ($\text{BOD}_5$) is incubated at $20^{\circ}\text{C}$ for $5$ days, expressed in mg/L.

  3. Write the first-order equation relating BOD exerted ($y_t$) to ultimate BOD ($L_0$).

    $$y_t = L_0\left(1 - 10^{-k_D t}\right)$$ where $k_D$ is the deoxygenation rate constant (base 10) per day and $t$ is time in days.

  4. How does the BOD rate constant $k$ change with temperature?

    $$k_T = k_{20}\,\theta^{(T-20)}$$ where $\theta \approx 1.047$ for BOD deoxygenation. So the rate roughly increases by about $4.7\%$ per $^{\circ}\text{C}$ rise.

  5. What is COD and how does it compare with BOD?

    COD (Chemical Oxygen Demand) is the oxygen equivalent of organic matter oxidizable by a strong chemical oxidant (e.g. $\ce{K2Cr2O7}$). COD $>$ BOD always, because COD oxidizes both biodegradable and non-biodegradable matter; a low BOD/COD ratio indicates poor biodegradability.

  6. Define DO (Dissolved Oxygen) and its typical saturation value in fresh water at $20^{\circ}\text{C}$.

    DO is the concentration of molecular oxygen dissolved in water (mg/L). Saturation DO in fresh water is about $9.17$ mg/L at $20^{\circ}\text{C}$; it decreases as temperature and salinity increase.

  7. What is the permissible pH range for drinking water as per IS 10500?

    The acceptable pH range for drinking water is $6.5$ to $8.5$. There is no relaxation permitted beyond this range.

  8. State the IS 10500 acceptable and permissible limits for total hardness (as $\ce{CaCO3}$).

    Acceptable limit: $200$ mg/L; permissible limit (no alternate source): $600$ mg/L, expressed as $\ce{CaCO3}$.

  9. Classify water hardness ranges (as $\ce{CaCO3}$) into soft, moderate, hard and very hard.

    Soft: $0$–$75$ mg/L; Moderately hard: $75$–$150$ mg/L; Hard: $150$–$300$ mg/L; Very hard: $>300$ mg/L (as $\ce{CaCO3}$).

  10. Differentiate carbonate (temporary) and non-carbonate (permanent) hardness.

    Carbonate hardness is due to bicarbonates/carbonates of $\ce{Ca}$ and $\ce{Mg}$, removable by boiling or lime. Non-carbonate hardness is due to sulphates, chlorides and nitrates of $\ce{Ca}$/$\ce{Mg}$, removable only by lime-soda or ion exchange.

  11. What chemical/biological parameter does MPN test estimate, and what does it indicate?

    MPN (Most Probable Number) statistically estimates the density of coliform bacteria per $100$ mL of water. Coliforms are indicator organisms signaling possible faecal contamination; drinking water should have zero $E.\,coli$ per $100$ mL.

  12. Define the Water Quality Index (WQI) and its purpose.

    WQI is a single dimensionless number that aggregates several water-quality parameters (DO, pH, BOD, turbidity, etc.) using weighted sub-indices into one value, simplifying communication of overall water quality to a non-technical audience.

  13. Write the general weighted-sum form of the Water Quality Index.

    $$\text{WQI} = \sum_{i=1}^{n} W_i\, q_i$$ where $q_i$ is the quality rating (sub-index) of parameter $i$ and $W_i$ is its unit weight, with $\sum W_i = 1$.

  14. List the main physical parameters of water quality.

    Temperature, turbidity, colour, taste, odour, and total solids (suspended + dissolved). These affect aesthetics and acceptability rather than direct toxicity.

  15. Distinguish total solids (TS), total suspended solids (TSS) and total dissolved solids (TDS).

    TS = all residue after evaporation. TSS = portion retained on a filter (suspended). TDS = portion passing the filter (dissolved). Thus $\text{TS} = \text{TSS} + \text{TDS}$.

  16. Name three common unit operations and three unit processes in water treatment.

    Unit operations (physical): screening, sedimentation, filtration. Unit processes (chemical/biological): coagulation, disinfection, biological oxidation. Operations rely on physical forces; processes involve chemical/biological reactions.

  17. State the per-capita water demand figures used in Indian design (domestic + total).

    For Indian towns with full flushing, typical design figures are domestic demand $\approx 135$ lpcd and total demand $\approx 270$ lpcd (including industrial, public, fire and losses).

  18. What is the Goodrich formula for variation of water demand over a period $t$ (days)?

    $$p = 180\, t^{-0.10}$$ where $p$ is the percentage of the annual average daily demand drawn in $t$ days (e.g. for $t=1$ day, $p=180\%$).

  19. Give the standard peak factors for maximum daily, maximum hourly, and combined demand.

    Maximum daily demand $= 1.8 \times$ average daily; Maximum hourly demand $= 1.5 \times$ average hourly of max day; Combined (coincident) peak $= 1.8 \times 1.5 = 2.7 \times$ average.

  20. What is fire demand by the Kuichling formula?

    $$Q = 3182\sqrt{P}$$ where $Q$ is fire demand in L/min and $P$ is population in thousands.

Show the other 30 Environmental Engineering flashcards
  1. Name the four common layouts of a water distribution system.

    Dead-end (tree) system, grid-iron (gridded) system, ring (circular) system, and radial system. Grid-iron and ring give good circulation and reliability; dead-end is cheapest but accumulates stagnant water.

  2. Define detention (retention) time for a sedimentation tank.

    $$t = \frac{V}{Q}$$ where $V$ is tank volume and $Q$ is the flow rate; it is the theoretical average time water stays in the tank. Typical plain settling: $3$–$4$ h.

  3. Define surface overflow rate (SOR) and its significance in a settling tank.

    $$\text{SOR} = \frac{Q}{A_{surface}} = v_s$$ It equals the settling velocity of the smallest particle fully removed. Particles with settling velocity $\geq$ SOR are 100% removed regardless of tank depth (ideal Type-I settling).

  4. State Stokes' law for the settling velocity of a discrete spherical particle.

    $$v_s = \frac{g\,(\rho_s - \rho_w)\,d^{2}}{18\,\mu}$$ valid for laminar flow (Reynolds number $< 1$), where $d$ is particle diameter and $\mu$ is dynamic viscosity.

  5. What is the purpose of coagulation, and name the most common coagulant with its reaction.

    Coagulation neutralizes the negative charge on colloids so they can agglomerate. The common coagulant is alum: $$\ce{Al2(SO4)3.18H2O + 3Ca(HCO3)2 -> 2Al(OH)3 v + 3CaSO4 + 6CO2 + 18H2O}$$ producing gelatinous $\ce{Al(OH)3}$ floc.

  6. What is the optimum pH range for alum coagulation?

    Alum coagulation works best in the pH range $5.5$ to $8.0$, where $\ce{Al(OH)3}$ floc has minimum solubility and maximum formation.

  7. Compare slow sand filters and rapid sand filters on filtration rate and pretreatment.

    Slow sand filter: rate $\approx 100$–$200\ \text{L/m}^2/\text{h}$, no coagulation needed, removes bacteria via schmutzdecke. Rapid sand filter: rate $\approx 3000$–$6000\ \text{L/m}^2/\text{h}$, requires prior coagulation–sedimentation, cleaned by backwashing.

  8. What is breakpoint chlorination?

    It is the point at which enough chlorine has been added to satisfy all demand (oxidizing ammonia and organics); beyond it, added chlorine appears as free available residual chlorine. The dip-and-rise of the residual curve defines the breakpoint.

  9. What forms of chlorine residual exist and which is the stronger disinfectant?

    Free residual ($\ce{HOCl}$ and $\ce{OCl-}$) and combined residual (chloramines). $\ce{HOCl}$ (hypochlorous acid) is the strongest disinfectant; free chlorine is far more effective and faster than combined chloramines.

  10. Why does chlorine disinfection efficiency decrease at higher pH?

    Chlorine in water forms $\ce{HOCl <=> H+ + OCl-}$. At higher pH the equilibrium shifts toward the weaker disinfectant $\ce{OCl-}$; the strong germicidal $\ce{HOCl}$ dominates below pH $\approx 7.5$, so low pH gives better disinfection.

  11. Estimate the quantity of domestic wastewater from water supply, and give typical infiltration allowance.

    Wastewater (dry weather flow) $\approx 70$–$80\%$ of the water supplied. Additional infiltration/inflow of groundwater into sewers is allowed at about $5000$–$50000$ L/ha/day depending on sewer condition and water table.

  12. What is the difference between dry weather flow (DWF) and the maximum sewer design flow?

    DWF is the average daily sanitary sewage flow. Sewers are designed for peak flow $\approx 3 \times \text{DWF}$ (and checked for minimum flow $\approx \tfrac{1}{2}\,\text{DWF}$ for self-cleansing).

  13. What is the self-cleansing velocity in sewers and the typical design value?

    It is the minimum velocity that prevents deposition of solids, typically $0.6$ m/s for sewage; design velocities are kept between about $0.6$ and $3.0$ m/s to avoid both silting and scouring.

  14. Which unit operations constitute primary treatment of wastewater?

    Screening, grit removal (grit chamber), and primary sedimentation. Primary treatment is mainly physical, removing floating and settleable solids and reducing BOD by about $30$–$40\%$.

  15. Typical BOD and suspended solids removal efficiency of primary sedimentation?

    Primary sedimentation removes about $30$–$40\%$ of BOD and $50$–$70\%$ of suspended solids.

  16. What is the purpose of a grit chamber and the velocity maintained in it?

    A grit chamber removes inorganic heavy particles (sand, gravel) while keeping organic matter in suspension. A horizontal velocity of about $0.3$ m/s is maintained so that grit settles but organics do not.

  17. Name the two main types of biological secondary treatment processes.

    Attached-growth (fixed-film) processes such as trickling filters and RBCs, and suspended-growth processes such as the activated sludge process (ASP). Both use microbes to oxidize dissolved/colloidal organic matter.

  18. Define F/M ratio (food-to-microorganism ratio) in the activated sludge process.

    $$\frac{F}{M} = \frac{Q\,S_0}{V\,X}$$ where $Q$ = flow, $S_0$ = influent BOD, $V$ = aeration tank volume, $X$ = MLSS. Typical conventional ASP: $0.2$–$0.5\ \text{kg BOD/kg MLSS/day}$.

  19. Define the sludge volume index (SVI) and a good operating value.

    $$\text{SVI} = \frac{\text{settled sludge volume (mL/L) after 30 min}\times 1000}{\text{MLSS (mg/L)}}$$ Good settling sludge has SVI between $50$ and $150$ mL/g; values $>150$ indicate bulking.

  20. What is sludge age (mean cell residence time) in the activated sludge process?

    $$\theta_c = \frac{V\,X}{Q_w X_r + Q_e X_e} \approx \frac{\text{mass of MLSS in tank}}{\text{mass of SS wasted per day}}$$ Typical conventional ASP: $5$–$15$ days.

  21. Compare a high-rate trickling filter with a standard-rate trickling filter.

    Standard-rate: hydraulic loading $1$–$4\ \text{m}^3/\text{m}^2/\text{day}$, no recirculation, higher efficiency (~$80$–$85\%$ BOD). High-rate: hydraulic loading $10$–$40\ \text{m}^3/\text{m}^2/\text{day}$, uses recirculation, lower per-pass efficiency but handles higher loads.

  22. State the NSF/Velz efficiency formula for a single-stage trickling filter (without recirculation).

    $$E = \frac{100}{1 + 0.4432\sqrt{\dfrac{u}{V\,F}}}$$ where $u$ = BOD load (kg/day), $V$ = filter volume ($\text{m}^3$), and $F$ = recirculation factor (= 1 if no recirculation).

  23. What are the CPCB general effluent discharge standards for BOD into inland surface water?

    For discharge into inland surface waters: $\text{BOD}_5 \leq 30$ mg/L, suspended solids $\leq 100$ mg/L, pH $5.5$–$9.0$, and COD $\leq 250$ mg/L (CPCB general standards).

  24. What is the prescribed effluent BOD limit for discharge onto land for irrigation and into public sewers (CPCB)?

    Discharge on land for irrigation: $\text{BOD}_5 \leq 100$ mg/L. Discharge into public sewers: $\text{BOD}_5 \leq 350$ mg/L.

  25. Name the common methods of ultimate sludge disposal.

    Sludge thickening, anaerobic digestion, dewatering (drying beds/centrifuge/filter press), followed by ultimate disposal: land application, sanitary landfilling, incineration, or use as soil conditioner/fertilizer.

  26. What gas is produced in anaerobic sludge digestion and what is its main use?

    Anaerobic digestion produces biogas, mainly methane ($\ce{CH4}$, ~$65$–$70\%$) and $\ce{CO2}$ (~$30\%$). The methane is combustible and used as fuel for heating digesters and power generation.

  27. List common applications for reuse of treated sewage.

    Agricultural and landscape irrigation, industrial cooling and process water, groundwater recharge, toilet flushing/dual plumbing, construction, and creation of recreational/ornamental water bodies. Higher-contact reuse requires higher treatment (tertiary/disinfection).

  28. Classify air pollutants into primary and secondary, with examples.

    Primary pollutants are emitted directly: $\ce{CO}$, $\ce{SO2}$, $\ce{NO}$, particulates, hydrocarbons. Secondary pollutants form by reaction in the atmosphere: ozone ($\ce{O3}$), PAN, and photochemical smog (from $\ce{NOx}$ + hydrocarbons + sunlight).

  29. Name the main sources and a key impact for $\ce{SO2}$ air pollution.

    Sources: combustion of sulphur-bearing fossil fuels (coal, oil), smelting. Impact: respiratory irritation and acid rain via $$\ce{SO2 + H2O -> H2SO3},\quad \ce{2SO2 + O2 + 2H2O -> 2H2SO4}$$ damaging vegetation, materials and aquatic life.

  30. Which air pollution control devices are best for fine particulates, and on what principle does an ESP work?

    For fine particulates: electrostatic precipitators (ESP) and fabric (bag) filters are most efficient ($>99\%$). An ESP charges particles with a high-voltage corona and collects them on oppositely charged plates by electrostatic attraction; settling chambers/cyclones only handle coarse particles.

GATE Civil Engineering Environmental Engineering FAQ

What is in the GATE Civil Engineering Environmental Engineering syllabus?

GATE Civil Engineering Environmental Engineering is split into 4 chapters: Water and Waste Water Quality and Treatment, Sewerage System Design, Air Pollution and Municipal Solid Wastes. Together they contain 21 topics and 7 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in GATE Civil Engineering Environmental Engineering?

4 chapters, containing 21 topics and 7 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Water and Waste Water Quality and Treatment, with 6 topics.

Are there flashcards for GATE Civil Engineering Environmental Engineering?

Yes — a 50-card Environmental Engineering deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.