🇺🇸 First-Year Law Students' Examination (FYLSX / Baby Bar) · subject
First-Year Law Students' Examination (FYLSX / Baby Bar) Torts Syllabus
The Torts syllabus for First-Year Law Students' Examination (FYLSX / Baby Bar) in full: 4 chapters, 19 topics and 50 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Torts flashcards with answers.
Torts syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Intentional Torts and Defenses
4 topics- Intent and Transferred Intent
- Harms to the Person
- Battery
- Assault
- False imprisonment
- Intentional infliction of emotional distress
- Harms to Property
- Trespass to land
- Trespass to chattels
- Conversion
- Defenses to Intentional Torts
- Consent
- Self-defense and defense of others
- Defense of property and recapture of chattels
- Necessity (public and private)
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Negligence
5 topics- Duty of Care
- Reasonable person standard
- Foreseeable plaintiffs (Palsgraf: Cardozo vs. Andrews)
- Special standards: children, professionals, common carriers
- Affirmative duties and special relationships
- Premises Liability
- Invitees, licensees, and trespassers
- Attractive nuisance doctrine
- Breach
- Risk-utility (Hand) formula
- Negligence per se
- Res ipsa loquitur
- Causation
- Actual cause: but-for and substantial factor
- Proximate cause and foreseeability
- Intervening and superseding causes
- Damages and Defenses
- Eggshell-plaintiff rule
- Negligent infliction of emotional distress
- Contributory and comparative negligence
- Assumption of risk
- Duty of Care
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Strict Liability and Products Liability
5 topics- Abnormally Dangerous Activities
- Liability for Animals
- Wild animals
- Domestic animals with known propensities
- Products Liability Theories
- Negligence
- Strict products liability
- Breach of warranty
- Types of Defect
- Manufacturing defect
- Design defect (consumer expectation and risk-utility)
- Warning defect
- Defenses in Strict and Products Liability
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Other Torts and Multiple Defendants
5 topics- Defamation
- Libel vs. slander and special damages
- Public figures and actual malice
- Defenses and privileges
- Invasion of Privacy
- Intrusion upon seclusion
- Public disclosure of private facts
- False light
- Appropriation of likeness
- Misrepresentation and Business Torts
- Intentional misrepresentation (fraud)
- Negligent misrepresentation
- Interference with contract and prospective advantage
- Nuisance
- Private nuisance
- Public nuisance
- Vicarious Liability and Apportionment
- Respondeat superior and scope of employment
- Independent contractors and nondelegable duties
- Joint and several liability, contribution, and indemnity
- Defamation
First-Year Law Students' Examination (FYLSX / Baby Bar) Torts flashcards — 51 questions with answers
What are the two ways the intent element of an intentional tort can be satisfied?
Intent exists when the defendant acts (1) with the purpose of causing the consequence, or (2) with knowledge to a substantial certainty that the consequence will result.
Explain the doctrine of transferred intent and the five torts it applies to.
If a defendant intends to commit one tort but instead commits a different tort, or harms a different victim, the intent transfers. It applies among: battery, assault, false imprisonment, trespass to land, and trespass to chattels.
State the elements of battery.
(1) A harmful or offensive contact (2) with the plaintiff's person, (3) caused by the defendant's intentional act, and (4) causation. Contact is offensive if it would offend a reasonable person's sense of dignity; the plaintiff need not be aware at the time.
State the elements of assault.
(1) An act creating a reasonable apprehension in the plaintiff (2) of an imminent harmful or offensive contact, (3) intent, and (4) causation. Words alone are usually insufficient; apparent present ability suffices.
State the elements of false imprisonment.
(1) An act or omission that confines or restrains the plaintiff to a bounded area, (2) intent, and (3) causation. The plaintiff must be aware of the confinement or harmed by it; a bounded area has no reasonable means of escape known to the plaintiff.
State the elements of intentional infliction of emotional distress (IIED).
(1) Extreme and outrageous conduct, (2) intent or recklessness, (3) causation, and (4) severe emotional distress. Damages (severe distress) are required; nominal damages are unavailable.
What are the special bystander rules for recovering on an IIED claim?
A bystander may recover by showing the prima facie elements, OR by showing: (1) presence when the injury occurred, (2) the plaintiff is a close relative of the injured person, and (3) the defendant knew of the presence and relationship (knowledge not required for prima facie route).
Distinguish trespass to chattels from conversion.
Both involve intentional interference with the plaintiff's personal property. Trespass to chattels is a minor interference (damages = cost of repair/loss of use). Conversion is so serious it warrants forced sale; damages = full fair market value at the time of conversion.
State the elements of trespass to land.
(1) Physical invasion of the plaintiff's real property, (2) by an intentional act (intent to enter the land, not intent to trespass), and (3) causation. The invasion can be by a person or a physical object; no actual damages required.
What are the requirements for valid consent as a defense to intentional torts?
Plaintiff must have capacity, and consent may be express or implied (by custom/conduct). Consent is invalid if induced by fraud, duress, or mistake known to the defendant, or if the defendant exceeds the scope of consent.
Compare the rules for using deadly force in self-defense versus defense of property.
Self-defense allows reasonable force, including deadly force, when one reasonably believes they face imminent serious bodily harm. Defense of property never allows deadly force (or deadly mechanical devices) to protect mere property.
Explain the privileges of necessity (public vs. private) as defenses to property torts.
Public necessity (acting for the public good) is an absolute defense, no compensation owed. Private necessity (protecting one's own/few persons' interests) is a qualified defense: the actor is not liable for the trespass but must pay for actual damage caused.
What is the shopkeeper's privilege?
A merchant may detain a suspected shoplifter for a reasonable time and in a reasonable manner if there is a reasonable belief that theft occurred. It is a defense to false imprisonment.
State the four elements of a negligence cause of action.
(1) Duty, (2) breach, (3) causation (actual and proximate), and (4) damages.
To whom is a duty of care owed, and what are the two competing views?
A duty is owed to foreseeable plaintiffs. Under the majority Cardozo (Palsgraf) view, duty is owed only to those in the foreseeable zone of danger. Under the minority Andrews view, a duty is owed to everyone if anyone is foreseeably harmed.
What is the standard of care for the reasonably prudent person, and how do physical and mental characteristics factor in?
The objective reasonably prudent person under like circumstances. Physical characteristics (e.g., blindness) ARE considered; mental deficiencies and low intelligence are NOT (the defendant is held to the standard despite them).
State the duty owed by a common carrier and innkeeper.
Common carriers and innkeepers owe a high duty of care to their passengers/guests and are liable for even slight negligence (under traditional/majority rule).
Under traditional rules, what duties does a land possessor owe to undiscovered trespassers, discovered/anticipated trespassers, licensees, and invitees?
Undiscovered trespasser: no duty. Discovered/anticipated trespasser: warn of/make safe known, hidden, artificial death-or-serious-injury conditions. Licensee: warn of known concealed dangers (no duty to inspect). Invitee: reasonable care including duty to inspect and make safe.
State the attractive nuisance doctrine.
A land possessor may be liable for injuries to trespassing children caused by an artificial condition if: (1) the condition exists where children are likely to trespass, (2) the possessor knows/should know it poses an unreasonable risk, (3) children can't appreciate the danger due to youth, and (4) the magnitude of risk outweighs the utility/burden of remedy.
What is negligence per se and what two elements must the plaintiff satisfy?
A statute's specific duty replaces the common-law standard, establishing duty and breach. The plaintiff must show (1) she is within the class of persons the statute was designed to protect, and (2) the harm is the type the statute was designed to prevent.
Show the other 31 Torts flashcards
State the formula (Learned Hand) for determining breach of duty.
A defendant breaches when the burden of taking precautions (B) is less than the probability of harm (P) multiplied by the gravity/loss of injury (L): breach exists if B < P × L.
What is res ipsa loquitur and its effect?
Res ipsa loquitur lets the plaintiff prove breach circumstantially by showing: (1) the accident is the type that normally doesn't occur without negligence, and (2) the instrumentality was in the defendant's exclusive control. Effect: it creates an inference of negligence that survives a directed verdict motion.
State the test for actual cause (cause in fact), including when multiple causes exist.
The 'but-for' test: the injury would not have occurred but for the defendant's act. With multiple sufficient causes (e.g., two fires), use the 'substantial factor' test. With multiple defendants and unknown causation, use alternative causation (Summers v. Tice), shifting the burden to defendants.
Define proximate cause and the general rule for direct vs. indirect causation.
Proximate cause limits liability to foreseeable consequences. In direct-cause cases the defendant is liable for foreseeable harm. In indirect-cause cases an intervening force breaks the chain only if it is unforeseeable (a superseding cause); foreseeable intervening forces do not cut off liability.
Give examples of intervening forces that are normally foreseeable (and thus do NOT cut off liability).
Foreseeable intervening forces include: subsequent medical malpractice, negligent rescue, reaction/protection forces, and subsequent diseases or accidents caused by the original injury's weakened condition.
What is the eggshell-skull (thin-skull) plaintiff rule?
The defendant takes the plaintiff as found and is liable for the full extent of damages even if the plaintiff's preexisting condition made the injury far more severe than foreseeable. Extent of damages need not be foreseeable.
What damages are recoverable in a negligence action, and is there a duty to mitigate?
Recoverable: compensatory damages (past/future medical, lost earnings, pain and suffering). Punitive damages require wanton/willful conduct. Nominal damages are NOT available (actual harm is an element). The plaintiff must take reasonable steps to mitigate damages.
Compare contributory negligence, pure comparative negligence, and modified comparative negligence.
Contributory negligence: any plaintiff fault completely bars recovery (with last-clear-chance exception). Pure comparative: recovery reduced by plaintiff's % of fault (recovers even at 99%). Modified comparative: plaintiff barred if her fault exceeds 50% (or reaches 50%).
Explain assumption of the risk and its two elements.
A plaintiff who (1) knew of a risk and (2) voluntarily encountered it may be barred (in contributory negligence jurisdictions). It can be express (agreement) or implied. Many comparative-fault states have merged implied assumption into the comparative analysis.
What is the 'last clear chance' doctrine?
A plaintiff's rebuttal to contributory negligence: even if the plaintiff was negligent, the defendant who had the last clear chance to avoid the harm but failed to do so is liable. It is the plaintiff's 'rebuttal' to the contributory negligence defense.
State the three categories of activities that give rise to strict liability.
(1) Abnormally dangerous activities, (2) keeping of dangerous animals, and (3) products liability (strict products). In each, fault need not be proven for the relevant element.
What two factors define an abnormally dangerous activity for strict liability?
(1) The activity creates a foreseeable risk of serious harm even when reasonable care is exercised, and (2) the activity is not a matter of common usage in the community. Examples: blasting, toxic chemicals, explosives.
Compare strict liability for domestic animals versus wild animals.
Domestic animals: no strict liability unless the owner knows of the animal's dangerous propensities abnormal for its category (one-bite rule). Wild animals: strict liability for harm resulting from dangerous propensities characteristic of the species, even if domesticated.
Who can be a defendant in a strict products liability claim, and what is the key requirement about their business?
Any commercial supplier in the chain of distribution (manufacturer, wholesaler, retailer). The defendant must be a merchant routinely dealing in goods of that kind; casual sellers and service providers are excluded. Privity is not required.
State the elements of a strict products liability claim.
(1) Defendant is a commercial supplier, (2) the product was defective when it left the defendant's control, (3) the product was not substantially altered, (4) the plaintiff made a foreseeable use, and (5) the defect caused the plaintiff's injury.
Identify and define the three types of product defects.
(1) Manufacturing defect: product differs from the intended design and is more dangerous than expected (consumer-expectation test). (2) Design defect: dangerous design that could be made safer (risk-utility test with feasible alternative design). (3) Warning defect: inadequate warnings or instructions about non-obvious risks.
What test is generally used to prove a design defect?
The risk-utility test: the plaintiff must usually show a reasonable, feasible alternative design existed whose benefits outweighed its costs/dangers. Some jurisdictions also allow the consumer-expectation test.
List the theories under which a plaintiff can sue for a defective product.
(1) Intent (battery), (2) negligence, (3) strict products liability, (4) implied warranties of merchantability and fitness for a particular purpose, and (5) express warranty and misrepresentation.
How does negligence-based products liability differ from strict products liability?
Negligence requires proving the defendant breached a duty of reasonable care (fault), and intermediaries who don't inspect generally aren't liable. Strict products liability imposes liability for any defect regardless of the supplier's care, but the product must still be defective.
What defenses apply in strict and products liability actions in a comparative-fault jurisdiction?
Comparative negligence/fault principles apply to reduce or bar recovery. Assumption of the risk and product misuse (unforeseeable misuse) are also defenses. In contributory negligence states, ordinary contributory negligence is NOT a defense to strict liability, but knowing assumption of the risk is.
State the common-law elements of defamation.
(1) A defamatory statement of or concerning the plaintiff, (2) publication to a third party, (3) damage to the plaintiff's reputation, and (for matters of public concern) (4) fault and (5) falsity.
Distinguish libel from slander, and identify the slander per se categories.
Libel is written/permanent defamation (general damages presumed). Slander is spoken (special/pecuniary damages required) UNLESS slander per se: statements about (1) business/profession, (2) a loathsome disease, (3) crime of moral turpitude, or (4) unchastity of a woman—for which damages are presumed.
What additional constitutional elements apply to defamation involving public figures vs. private figures on matters of public concern?
Public official/figure: must prove falsity plus actual malice (knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard for truth) — New York Times v. Sullivan. Private figure on a matter of public concern: must prove falsity plus at least negligence (actual malice required for presumed/punitive damages).
Name and define the four invasion of privacy torts.
(1) Appropriation: unauthorized use of plaintiff's name/likeness for commercial advantage. (2) Intrusion upon seclusion: intrusion into private affairs objectionable to a reasonable person. (3) False light: widespread publication of facts placing plaintiff in a false light, objectionable to a reasonable person. (4) Public disclosure of private facts: public disclosure of private info objectionable to a reasonable person.
State the elements of intentional misrepresentation (fraud/deceit).
(1) Misrepresentation of a material fact, (2) scienter (knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard), (3) intent to induce reliance, (4) actual and justifiable reliance, and (5) damages.
How does negligent misrepresentation differ from intentional misrepresentation?
Negligent misrepresentation requires a misrepresentation made without reasonable care (negligence) rather than scienter, and is generally confined to commercial/business settings where the defendant owes a duty to a limited class of foreseeable plaintiffs (justifiable reliance and damages still required).
State the elements of tortious interference with contract/business relations.
(1) A valid contract or expectancy between plaintiff and a third party, (2) defendant's knowledge of it, (3) intentional interference inducing breach or termination, and (4) damages. Defendant may raise a privilege/justification defense (e.g., fair competition for prospective relations).
Distinguish private nuisance from public nuisance.
Private nuisance: a substantial and unreasonable interference with another's use and enjoyment of their land (plaintiff needs a property interest). Public nuisance: an unreasonable interference with the health, safety, or rights of the community; a private party may recover only by showing damage different in kind from the general public.
State the rule for vicarious liability (respondeat superior) and its scope limits.
An employer is liable for torts committed by employees acting within the scope of employment. Intentional torts are usually outside the scope unless force is inherent to the job, the employee serves the employer, or friction is generated by the employment. 'Frolic' (a major deviation) is outside scope; a minor 'detour' is within.
When is a principal vicariously liable for an independent contractor, and what is the rule for hirers generally?
Generally NOT liable for independent contractors, except for (1) inherently dangerous activities and (2) non-delegable duties (e.g., duty to keep premises safe for invitees). Compare: the car-owner/parent/tavern rules and joint-enterprise liability also impose vicarious liability in limited circumstances.
Explain joint and several liability and the difference between contribution and indemnity in apportioning damages.
Under joint and several liability each tortfeasor is liable for the entire judgment when the harm is indivisible. Contribution lets a defendant who paid more than her share recover the excess from co-tortfeasors (by comparative share or equal shares). Indemnity shifts the entire loss to another (e.g., from a retailer up to the manufacturer in products cases, or via vicarious liability).
First-Year Law Students' Examination (FYLSX / Baby Bar) Torts FAQ
What is in the First-Year Law Students' Examination (FYLSX / Baby Bar) Torts syllabus?
First-Year Law Students' Examination (FYLSX / Baby Bar) Torts is split into 4 chapters: Intentional Torts and Defenses, Negligence, Strict Liability and Products Liability and Other Torts and Multiple Defendants. Together they contain 19 topics and 50 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in First-Year Law Students' Examination (FYLSX / Baby Bar) Torts?
4 chapters, containing 19 topics and 50 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Negligence, with 5 topics.
Are there flashcards for First-Year Law Students' Examination (FYLSX / Baby Bar) Torts?
Yes — a 51-card Torts deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.