πΊπΈ FINRA Series 7 / SIE Exams Β· subject
FINRA Series 7 / SIE Exams Series 7: Securities Regulation, Underwriting, and Professional Conduct Syllabus
The Series 7: Securities Regulation, Underwriting, and Professional Conduct syllabus for FINRA Series 7 / SIE Exams in full: 3 chapters, 9 topics and 22 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Series 7: Securities Regulation, Underwriting, and Professional Conduct flashcards with answers.
Series 7: Securities Regulation, Underwriting, and Professional Conduct syllabus: all 3 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Securities Acts and Registration
3 topics- Foundational Federal Legislation
- Securities Act of 1933: registration and prospectus
- Securities Exchange Act of 1934: secondary market regulation
- Investment Company Act of 1940 and Investment Advisers Act of 1940
- Exempt Securities and Transactions
- Regulation D private placements and accredited investors
- Regulation A and intrastate (Rule 147) offerings
- Rule 144 and Rule 145
- Disclosure and Issuer Reporting
- Form 10-K, 10-Q, and 8-K reporting
- Proxy solicitation and shareholder communications
- Foundational Federal Legislation
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The Underwriting Process
3 topics- Primary Offerings
- Firm commitment versus best efforts underwriting
- Syndicate, selling group, and underwriting spread
- Tombstone ads, red herring, and the cooling-off period
- Distribution Rules
- FINRA Rule 5130 and 5131 (new issue/IPO restrictions)
- Stabilizing bids and the Securities Act quiet period
- Municipal Underwriting
- Competitive versus negotiated sales
- Official statement and the notice of sale
- Primary Offerings
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FINRA Conduct Rules and Ethics
3 topics- Communications with the Public
- FINRA Rule 2210 communication categories and approval
- Testimonials, projections, and prohibited claims
- Markups, Commissions, and Fair Dealing
- FINRA 5% markup policy
- Fair prices and reasonable commissions
- Code of Procedure and Arbitration
- Code of Procedure for rule violations
- Code of Arbitration for monetary disputes
- Mediation as dispute resolution
- Communications with the Public
FINRA Series 7 / SIE Exams Series 7: Securities Regulation, Underwriting, and Professional Conduct flashcards β 50 questions with answers
What does the Securities Act of 1933 regulate?
The primary market β the issuance/registration of new securities and the disclosure (prospectus) requirements for public offerings. Known as the 'Paper Act' or 'Truth in Securities' law.
What does the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 regulate?
The secondary market β trading of outstanding securities. It created the SEC, regulates exchanges, broker-dealers, insider trading, margin (via the Fed), and ongoing issuer reporting.
Which federal law created the SEC?
The Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
What did the Maloney Act of 1938 do?
Amended the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 to allow creation of self-regulatory organizations (SROs) for the OTC market, leading to the NASD (now FINRA).
What does the Investment Company Act of 1940 regulate?
It classifies and regulates investment companies β face-amount certificate companies, unit investment trusts (UITs), and management companies (open-end/mutual funds and closed-end funds).
What does the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 do?
Requires persons who are in the business of giving securities advice for compensation to register as investment advisers and regulates their conduct.
What did the Securities Investor Protection Act of 1970 create, and what does it cover?
Created SIPC, which protects customers of a failed broker-dealer up to $500,000 total, of which a maximum of $250,000 may be cash.
What did the Insider Trading and Securities Fraud Enforcement Act of 1988 establish for penalties?
Civil penalties of up to 3x the profit gained or loss avoided (treble damages), plus criminal penalties; it also requires firms to maintain written supervisory procedures to prevent insider trading.
Under the Securities Act of 1933, what are the four broad categories of EXEMPT SECURITIES?
U.S. government and agency securities, municipal securities, securities of banks/insurance companies, and securities of charitable/nonprofit and certain other entities (e.g., commercial paper β€270 days).
Is commercial paper an exempt security, and under what condition?
Yes β short-term corporate debt (banker's acceptances and commercial paper) is exempt if its maturity does not exceed 270 days (9 months).
What is the difference between an exempt security and an exempt transaction?
An exempt security is exempt regardless of how it is sold (e.g., munis, Treasuries). An exempt transaction is a particular manner of sale that is exempt (e.g., Reg D private placement) even though the security itself may not be exempt.
What is Regulation A+ and its two offering tiers?
A small-offering exemption from full registration. Tier 1: up to $20 million in 12 months. Tier 2: up to $75 million in 12 months (with audited financials and ongoing reporting).
Under Regulation D Rule 506(b), how many non-accredited investors are permitted and is advertising allowed?
Up to 35 non-accredited (but sophisticated) investors plus unlimited accredited investors; general solicitation/advertising is NOT permitted.
How does Rule 506(c) of Regulation D differ from 506(b)?
506(c) permits general solicitation/advertising but ALL purchasers must be accredited investors, and the issuer must take reasonable steps to verify accredited status.
Name two ways an individual can qualify as an accredited investor by financial thresholds.
Annual income over $200,000 (or $300,000 joint) in each of the last two years with expectation to continue, OR net worth over $1 million excluding primary residence.
What is Rule 147 (the intrastate offering exemption)?
Exempts offerings sold only to residents of a single state by an issuer doing business in that state; resales restricted to in-state residents for 6 months after the offering closes.
What is Rule 144 and the holding period for restricted stock?
Governs the resale of restricted and control (affiliate) securities. Restricted securities must be held for a minimum of 6 months (for a reporting issuer) before public resale.
Under Rule 144, what is the volume limitation for affiliate sales?
In any 90-day period, an affiliate may sell the greater of 1% of the outstanding shares OR the average weekly trading volume over the preceding 4 weeks.
Under Rule 144, when must Form 144 be filed?
At the time the sell order is placed, if the sale exceeds 5,000 shares OR $50,000 in any 90-day period. Form 144 is valid for 90 days.
What is Rule 144A?
Permits the resale of restricted securities to Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs) β institutions owning/investing at least $100 million in securities β without the Rule 144 holding period.
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What is a tombstone advertisement and what may it contain?
A limited advertisement permitted during the registration/cooling-off period. It may state only basic facts: issuer name, type/amount of security, price, and underwriters β it is not an offer to sell.
What is a red herring (preliminary prospectus)?
A preliminary prospectus used during the cooling-off period to solicit indications of interest. It omits the final public offering price and effective date and carries a red-ink disclaimer; it is not an offer to sell.
What are the three time periods of the registration process under the Act of 1933?
Pre-registration (pre-filing) period β no offers; Cooling-off period (min 20 days) β indications of interest only, red herring; Post-effective period β sales and final prospectus delivery permitted.
What is the minimum statutory cooling-off period for a registration statement?
20 days (it is often longer in practice while the SEC reviews and issues deficiency letters).
What SEC form is used by domestic companies for annual reports, and when is it due?
Form 10-K, filed annually; due within 60 to 90 days of fiscal year-end depending on filer size (large accelerated filers: 60 days).
What is Form 10-Q and Form 8-K?
Form 10-Q is the quarterly (unaudited) financial report (filed 3 times per year). Form 8-K reports material corporate events within 4 business days of the event.
Under the Securities Exchange Act, who must file reports of beneficial ownership (Forms 3, 4, 5)?
Insiders β officers, directors, and beneficial owners of more than 10% of a registered equity class. Form 4 (changes) is due within 2 business days of the transaction.
What is a Schedule 13D and its filing deadline?
Filed by anyone acquiring more than 5% beneficial ownership of a registered equity security; due within 5 business days (recent rule) of crossing the 5% threshold.
What does a firm-commitment underwriting mean?
The underwriters purchase the entire issue from the issuer and resell it to the public, assuming the full financial risk of any unsold shares.
What is a best-efforts underwriting?
The underwriter acts as agent and sells only what it can, with no obligation to buy unsold shares; the issuer bears the risk of unsold securities.
Distinguish 'all-or-none' (AON) from 'mini-max' best-efforts offerings.
AON: the entire issue must be sold or the offering is canceled and money returned. Mini-max: a minimum must be sold before any closing, up to a maximum amount.
In a syndicate, what is the difference between a Western (divided) and an Eastern (undivided) account?
Western: each member is liable only for its own allotment. Eastern: each member is liable for its proportionate share of any unsold securities regardless of its own sales.
What is the underwriting spread, and how is it divided?
The spread is the difference between the public offering price and the proceeds to the issuer. It is divided into the manager's fee, the underwriting (syndicate) fee, and the selling concession.
What is a syndicate (selling group) member's selling concession?
The portion of the spread paid to the firm that actually sells the security to the public β it is the largest component of the spread.
What does Rule 5130 (the 'new issue' rule) prohibit?
Prohibits FINRA member firms from selling shares of an equity IPO (a 'new issue') to restricted persons, such as member firms, their associated persons, and certain immediate family members.
Under the FINRA new-issue rules, who is generally a 'restricted person'?
Broker-dealers, their associated persons, finders and fiduciaries to the offering, portfolio managers, and immediate family of associated persons β they may not buy at the IPO public offering price.
What is the MSRB and who does it regulate vs. not regulate?
The Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board writes rules for municipal securities dealers and brokers. It has NO enforcement authority and does NOT regulate issuers (issuers are exempt).
What is a competitive bid vs. a negotiated municipal underwriting?
Competitive bid: the issuer awards the issue to the syndicate submitting the lowest interest cost (typically GO bonds). Negotiated: the issuer selects an underwriter and negotiates terms directly (typically revenue bonds).
In a competitive municipal bid, what are NIC and TIC?
Net Interest Cost (NIC) is total interest minus premium (or plus discount), ignoring time value of money. True Interest Cost (TIC) accounts for the time value of money (present value); the winning bid is the lowest cost basis specified.
What is the Bond Buyer's 'Official Notice of Sale'?
The notice published by a municipal issuer soliciting competitive bids from underwriters; it states the terms, dates, bidding restrictions, and basis of award (NIC or TIC).
What is a municipal Official Statement?
The disclosure document for a municipal offering, analogous to a prospectus, providing financial and legal information about the issuer and the bond issue; munis are exempt so it is not technically required by the Act of 1933 but is provided under MSRB rules.
Under MSRB Rule G-37, what is the political contribution limit before triggering a ban?
An MFP (municipal finance professional) may contribute up to $250 per election to an official for whom they can vote; exceeding it triggers a 2-year ban on negotiated municipal business with that issuer.
What is a bona fide quote vs. a nominal (subject) quote in municipals?
A bona fide quote is a firm price at which the dealer is ready to trade. A nominal quote is given for informational purposes only and is not a firm offer to trade.
Under FINRA Rule 2210, what are the three categories of communications with the public?
Retail communications (to more than 25 retail investors in 30 days), Correspondence (to 25 or fewer retail investors in 30 days), and Institutional communications (to institutional investors only).
What is the principal-approval requirement for retail communications under Rule 2210?
Retail communications generally require principal approval before first use. Correspondence and institutional communications require supervision/review but not necessarily prior principal approval of each piece.
When must certain retail communications be filed with FINRA's Advertising Regulation Department?
Generally within 10 business days of first use (or 10 days before first use for new member firms in their first year, and pre-filing for certain products like registered investment company communications with rankings).
What are the markup/markdown disclosure requirements under FINRA's 5% policy?
The 5% policy is a guideline (not a rule) for fair markups, markups, and commissions. It is not a fixed ceiling β fairness depends on factors like security type, price, availability, and amount of money involved.
How is a markup calculated and on what price is it based?
Markup = (price to customer β prevailing market price) Γ· prevailing market price. For a dealer (principal) transaction it is based on the current inter-dealer market price, not the dealer's own cost.
What is the FINRA Code of Procedure used for?
It handles disciplinary actions for rule violations by members and associated persons; complaints are brought by FINRA's Department of Enforcement and heard by a Hearing Panel (alleged violations of rules).
What is the FINRA Code of Arbitration and is its decision binding?
It resolves monetary disputes (member vs. member, member vs. associated person, and customer vs. member when agreed). Arbitration decisions are final and binding with no right of appeal. The eligibility/time limit for filing a claim is generally 6 years from the event.
FINRA Series 7 / SIE Exams Series 7: Securities Regulation, Underwriting, and Professional Conduct FAQ
What is in the FINRA Series 7 / SIE Exams Series 7: Securities Regulation, Underwriting, and Professional Conduct syllabus?
FINRA Series 7 / SIE Exams Series 7: Securities Regulation, Underwriting, and Professional Conduct is split into 3 chapters: Securities Acts and Registration, The Underwriting Process and FINRA Conduct Rules and Ethics. Together they contain 9 topics and 22 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in FINRA Series 7 / SIE Exams Series 7: Securities Regulation, Underwriting, and Professional Conduct?
3 chapters, containing 9 topics and 22 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Securities Acts and Registration, with 3 topics.
Are there flashcards for FINRA Series 7 / SIE Exams Series 7: Securities Regulation, Underwriting, and Professional Conduct?
Yes β a 50-card Series 7: Securities Regulation, Underwriting, and Professional Conduct deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.