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Delhi Judicial Services Exam Constitution of India & Constitutional Law Syllabus

The Constitution of India & Constitutional Law syllabus for Delhi Judicial Services Exam in full: 5 chapters, 22 topics and 50 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 53 Constitution of India & Constitutional Law flashcards with answers.

5Chapters
22Topics
50Sub-topics
53Flashcards

Constitution of India & Constitutional Law syllabus: all 5 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Foundations & Preamble

    4 topics
    • Nature of the Indian Constitution
      • Federal vs unitary features
      • Quasi-federal character and cooperative federalism
      • Parliamentary form of government
    • Preamble
      • Objectives: sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic
      • Whether part of the Constitution (Berubari, Kesavananda)
      • Amendability of the Preamble
    • Sources and historical evolution
      • Government of India Act 1935 influence
      • Constituent Assembly and drafting
    • Citizenship
      • Articles 5 to 11
      • Citizenship Act 1955 and amendments
  2. Fundamental Rights

    6 topics
    • Definition of State and justiciability (Articles 12 and 13)
      • Instrumentality and agency test
      • Doctrine of eclipse and severability
      • Waiver of fundamental rights
    • Right to Equality (Articles 14 to 18)
      • Reasonable classification and arbitrariness
      • Reservation and Articles 15(4), 16(4)
      • Abolition of untouchability and titles
    • Freedoms under Article 19
      • Six freedoms and reasonable restrictions
      • Free speech and the press
    • Protection in respect of conviction and life (Articles 20 to 22)
      • Article 21 expansion: Maneka Gandhi line
      • Due process and personal liberty
      • Preventive detention safeguards
    • Right against exploitation and religious freedom (Articles 23 to 28)
      • Forced labour and trafficking
      • Essential religious practices doctrine
    • Cultural, educational and constitutional remedies (Articles 29 to 32)
      • Writs: habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition, quo warranto
      • Article 32 as a fundamental right
  3. Directive Principles, Duties & Basic Structure

    4 topics
    • Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV)
      • Classification of directives
      • Conflict and harmony with Fundamental Rights
    • Fundamental Duties (Article 51A)
    • Basic Structure doctrine
      • Kesavananda Bharati
      • Minerva Mills and Waman Rao
      • Identified basic features
    • Constitutional amendment (Article 368)
      • Procedure and limitations
      • Scope of amending power
  4. Union & State Government

    4 topics
    • Executive: President, Governor, Council of Ministers
      • Powers, discretion and aid and advice
      • Ordinance-making power
      • Pardoning power (Articles 72 and 161)
    • Legislature: Parliament and State Legislatures
      • Legislative procedure and money bills
      • Privileges and anti-defection (Tenth Schedule)
    • Judiciary
      • Supreme Court and High Courts jurisdiction
      • Judicial review and independence
      • Appointment of judges and collegium
    • Special status of Delhi
      • Article 239AA and GNCTD
      • Distribution of powers: NCT vs Union
  5. Centre-State Relations & Emergency

    4 topics
    • Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule
      • Union, State and Concurrent Lists
      • Doctrine of pith and substance
      • Doctrine of repugnancy (Article 254)
    • Administrative and financial relations
    • Emergency provisions
      • National emergency (Article 352)
      • President's rule (Article 356)
      • Financial emergency (Article 360)
    • Services, tribunals and special provisions
      • Article 311 protections
      • Administrative tribunals (Article 323A)

Delhi Judicial Services Exam Constitution of India & Constitutional Law flashcards — 53 questions with answers

  1. Is the Indian Constitution rigid or flexible, and why is it described as a blend of both?

    It is partly rigid and partly flexible. Some provisions can be amended by a simple majority, others need a special majority (two-thirds), and some require a special majority plus ratification by at least half the state legislatures, making it a unique blend of rigidity and flexibility.

  2. Why is the Indian Constitution called 'quasi-federal' rather than purely federal?

    Because it has federal features (dual government, division of powers, written and rigid constitution, independent judiciary) but with a strong unitary bias (single citizenship, all-India services, emergency provisions, Centre's power to reorganise states), so K.C. Wheare called it 'quasi-federal'.

  3. What does the Preamble of the Indian Constitution declare India to be (the four key descriptive words)?

    A Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic. 'Socialist' and 'Secular' (and 'Integrity') were added by the 42nd Amendment, 1976.

  4. What four objectives does the Preamble secure to all citizens of India?

    Justice (social, economic, political); Liberty (of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship); Equality (of status and opportunity); and Fraternity (assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation).

  5. Is the Preamble a part of the Constitution and can it be amended? Which case settled this?

    Yes. In Kesavananda Bharati (1973) the Supreme Court held the Preamble is part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368, but its basic structure cannot be destroyed.

  6. What was the single most important source of the Indian Constitution's structural and administrative provisions?

    The Government of India Act, 1935, which provided the framework for federal structure, office of Governor, emergency provisions, and public service commissions.

  7. From which countries did India borrow: Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, and the parliamentary system?

    Fundamental Rights from the USA, Directive Principles of State Policy from Ireland, and the parliamentary form of government from the United Kingdom.

  8. Which Articles of the Constitution deal with citizenship, and what does the Constitution itself provide on it?

    Articles 5 to 11. The Constitution identifies who were citizens at its commencement (Articles 5-8) but leaves acquisition and termination of citizenship to be regulated by Parliament (Article 11), which enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955.

  9. What are the five modes of acquiring Indian citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955?

    By birth, by descent, by registration, by naturalisation, and by incorporation of territory.

  10. How is the term 'State' defined in Article 12 for the purpose of Fundamental Rights?

    State includes the Government and Parliament of India, the Government and Legislature of each State, and all local or other authorities within India or under the control of the Government of India.

  11. What does Article 13 declare about laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights?

    Article 13 declares that any law (pre- or post-constitutional) inconsistent with or in derogation of Fundamental Rights shall, to the extent of such inconsistency, be void. It is the basis for judicial review.

  12. What is the difference between the doctrine of eclipse and the doctrine of severability under Article 13?

    Doctrine of eclipse: a pre-constitutional law inconsistent with FRs is not dead but dormant/overshadowed and revives if the inconsistency is removed. Doctrine of severability: only the offending part of a law is struck down, leaving the valid portion operative.

  13. What guarantee does Article 14 provide and what are its two limbs?

    Article 14 guarantees equality before the law (a negative concept of equal subjection, borrowed from England) and equal protection of the laws (a positive concept of equal treatment in equal circumstances, from the USA).

  14. What is the test of 'reasonable classification' permitted under Article 14?

    Classification is valid if it satisfies two tests: (1) it is founded on an intelligible differentia distinguishing those grouped from those left out, and (2) the differentia has a rational nexus to the object sought to be achieved by the law.

  15. What does Article 15 prohibit and on what grounds?

    Article 15 prohibits discrimination by the State against any citizen only on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth (or any of them).

  16. What does Article 16 guarantee and what is its key permitted exception for backward classes?

    Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. Article 16(4) permits the State to reserve appointments or posts in favour of any backward class not adequately represented in the services.

  17. What do Articles 17 and 18 abolish/prohibit?

    Article 17 abolishes 'untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form (an offence punishable by law). Article 18 prohibits the State from conferring titles (except military and academic distinctions) and bars citizens from accepting titles from foreign states.

  18. List the six freedoms originally guaranteed to citizens under Article 19(1).

    Freedom of: (a) speech and expression; (b) assembly peaceably and without arms; (c) form associations or unions; (d) move freely throughout India; (e) reside and settle in any part of India; and (g) practise any profession or carry on any occupation, trade or business. (The original right to property, (f), was repealed by the 44th Amendment, 1978.)

  19. On what grounds can reasonable restrictions be imposed on freedom of speech under Article 19(2)?

    Sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign states, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement to an offence.

  20. What protection against ex-post-facto laws, double jeopardy, and self-incrimination does Article 20 provide?

    Article 20 protects against: (1) ex-post-facto criminal laws and enhanced penalties; (2) double jeopardy (no prosecution and punishment for the same offence more than once); and (3) self-incrimination (no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself).

Show the other 33 Constitution of India & Constitutional Law flashcards
  1. What is the scope of 'life and personal liberty' under Article 21 after Maneka Gandhi (1978)?

    No person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law, and after Maneka Gandhi that procedure must be 'just, fair and reasonable', not arbitrary; Article 21 now embraces a wide range of derived rights (privacy, livelihood, dignity, clean environment, etc.).

  2. What rights does Article 22 guarantee to an arrested person, and what is the constitutional limit on detention before a magistrate?

    Right to be informed of grounds of arrest, to consult a lawyer of choice, and to be produced before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours (excluding journey time). These safeguards do not apply to enemy aliens or persons under preventive detention.

  3. What two practices does Article 23 prohibit?

    Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings (including buying and selling of persons), begar, and other similar forms of forced labour; any contravention is an offence punishable by law.

  4. What protection does Article 24 give regarding child labour?

    Article 24 prohibits the employment of any child below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine, or other hazardous employment.

  5. What does Article 25 guarantee in respect of religious freedom?

    Subject to public order, morality, health and other provisions of Part III, all persons have the freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion.

  6. What rights regarding religious affairs does Article 26 confer on religious denominations?

    Subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination may: establish and maintain institutions for religious/charitable purposes; manage its own affairs in matters of religion; own and acquire property; and administer such property in accordance with law.

  7. What do Articles 27 and 28 provide regarding taxes and religious instruction?

    Article 27: no person can be compelled to pay any tax whose proceeds are specifically appropriated for promotion of a particular religion. Article 28: no religious instruction shall be provided in wholly State-funded educational institutions.

  8. What cultural and educational rights of minorities are protected by Articles 29 and 30?

    Article 29 protects the right of any section of citizens to conserve its distinct language, script or culture and bars denial of admission to State-aided institutions on grounds of religion, race, caste or language. Article 30 gives religious and linguistic minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

  9. Why did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar call Article 32 the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution?

    Because Article 32 guarantees the right to constitutional remedies, allowing a person to move the Supreme Court directly for enforcement of Fundamental Rights; the right to this remedy is itself a Fundamental Right.

  10. Name the five writs the Supreme Court (Art. 32) and High Courts (Art. 226) can issue and the purpose of each.

    Habeas Corpus (to produce a detained person and test legality of detention); Mandamus (to command a public authority to perform its duty); Prohibition (to stop a lower court/tribunal exceeding jurisdiction); Certiorari (to quash an order of a lower court/tribunal); and Quo Warranto (to question the legality of a person holding a public office).

  11. How does the writ jurisdiction of a High Court under Article 226 differ from the Supreme Court under Article 32?

    Article 226 is wider: a High Court can issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and 'for any other purpose' (legal rights), whereas Article 32 is confined to enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Article 226 is not itself a Fundamental Right; Article 32 is.

  12. Are Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) enforceable in a court of law? What is their nature?

    No. Under Article 37, DPSPs are not enforceable by any court, but they are fundamental in the governance of the country and it is the duty of the State to apply them in making laws.

  13. What is the classification of Directive Principles into broad categories?

    They are commonly classified as Socialistic (e.g., Art. 38, 39, 41-43), Gandhian (e.g., Art. 40 village panchayats, Art. 43 cottage industries, Art. 46, 47, 48), and Liberal-Intellectual (e.g., Art. 44 uniform civil code, Art. 45 early childhood care, Art. 48A environment, Art. 50 separation of judiciary from executive, Art. 51).

  14. In a conflict between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles, what is the current constitutional position?

    FRs generally prevail, but the State may implement DPSPs while harmonising both. Article 31C (as upheld in part) protects laws giving effect to Article 39(b) and (c) even if they violate Articles 14 or 19. The courts seek harmonious construction; this balance is itself part of the basic structure (Minerva Mills).

  15. Where are Fundamental Duties found, how many are there, and by which amendment were they added?

    Fundamental Duties are in Article 51A, Part IVA. They originally numbered ten and were added by the 42nd Amendment (1976) on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee; an eleventh duty (provide education to children aged 6-14) was added by the 86th Amendment, 2002, making eleven in total.

  16. What is the 'basic structure' doctrine and in which case was it propounded?

    The doctrine, laid down in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), holds that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution under Article 368 but cannot alter or destroy its 'basic structure' or essential features.

  17. Name five features that the Supreme Court has held to be part of the 'basic structure'.

    Supremacy of the Constitution; rule of law; separation of powers; judicial review; federalism; secularism; democratic and republican form of government; free and fair elections; independence of the judiciary; and the harmony/balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles (any five).

  18. What are the three procedures for amending the Constitution under Article 368 and related provisions?

    (1) By simple majority of Parliament (for certain provisions outside Art. 368, e.g., admission of states); (2) by a special majority of each House (majority of total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting); and (3) by special majority plus ratification by legislatures of at least half the states (for federal provisions).

  19. Who is the executive head of the Union and how is the President of India elected?

    The President (Article 52) is the executive head of the Union. He is elected indirectly by an electoral college consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry, by a system of proportional representation through a single transferable vote.

  20. What is the constitutional relationship between the President and the Council of Ministers (Article 74)?

    Article 74 provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President, who shall act in accordance with such advice; the President may require reconsideration once, but must act on the advice tendered after reconsideration.

  21. How is a Governor appointed and to whom does he hold office (term and pleasure)?

    The Governor (Article 155) is appointed by the President; he holds office during the pleasure of the President (Article 156) and normally for a term of five years. He is the constitutional head of the State executive.

  22. What are the three categories of discretionary/situational powers of a Governor?

    (1) Reserving a Bill for the President's consideration; (2) recommending President's Rule under Article 356; and (3) exercising discretion as administrator of an adjoining Union Territory or under special provisions for certain states; plus situational discretion such as appointing a CM in a hung assembly.

  23. What is the composition of the Indian Parliament and the maximum strength of each House?

    Parliament consists of the President, the Rajya Sabha (Council of States, max 250 members) and the Lok Sabha (House of the People, max 552 members). The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body with one-third retiring every two years; the Lok Sabha has a normal term of five years.

  24. What is the difference between an Ordinary Bill and a Money Bill in terms of the Rajya Sabha's powers?

    For an Ordinary Bill, both Houses have equal power and deadlocks may go to a joint sitting. A Money Bill (Article 110) can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha; the Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations within 14 days, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject. The Speaker certifies whether a Bill is a Money Bill.

  25. What is the procedure and majority required to remove a Supreme Court judge from office?

    A judge can be removed only by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a special majority (majority of total membership of that House and two-thirds of members present and voting) on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. This impeachment-style process is under Article 124(4).

  26. What is the special constitutional status of Delhi and which article governs it?

    Delhi is the National Capital Territory under Article 239AA (inserted by the 69th Amendment, 1991). It has a Legislative Assembly and a Council of Ministers, but the Assembly cannot legislate on Police, Public Order and Land, which remain with the Centre, and the Lieutenant Governor acts as administrator.

  27. How are legislative powers divided between the Union and States, and what are the three Lists of the Seventh Schedule?

    The Seventh Schedule divides powers into three lists: the Union List (subjects on which only Parliament can legislate, e.g., defence, foreign affairs), the State List (subjects for State legislatures, e.g., police, public health), and the Concurrent List (both can legislate, e.g., criminal law, marriage); in case of conflict on a Concurrent subject, Union law prevails (Article 254).

  28. Who has the power to legislate on residuary subjects not mentioned in any List?

    Parliament has exclusive power to make laws on residuary subjects (those not enumerated in the Union, State or Concurrent Lists) under Article 248, read with Entry 97 of the Union List.

  29. How are revenues distributed between the Centre and States, and which body recommends this distribution?

    Articles 268-281 govern Centre-State financial relations, including distribution of tax proceeds. The Finance Commission (Article 280), constituted by the President every five years, recommends the distribution of net tax proceeds between the Union and the States and the principles governing grants-in-aid.

  30. What are the three types of emergencies provided in the Constitution and their governing articles?

    (1) National Emergency (Article 352) on grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion; (2) State Emergency / President's Rule (Article 356) on failure of constitutional machinery in a State; and (3) Financial Emergency (Article 360) when the financial stability or credit of India is threatened.

  31. What happens to Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency under Articles 358 and 359?

    Article 358 automatically suspends the six freedoms under Article 19 during an emergency declared on grounds of war or external aggression. Article 359 empowers the President to suspend the right to move courts for enforcement of specified Fundamental Rights, but after the 44th Amendment, Articles 20 and 21 can never be suspended.

  32. What constitutional provisions govern the All-India Services and what is special about them?

    Article 312 empowers Parliament, on a Rajya Sabha resolution supported by two-thirds of members present and voting, to create new All-India Services common to the Union and States (e.g., IAS, IPS). Officers are recruited and trained centrally but serve under both the Centre and the States.

  33. What is the constitutional basis for administrative tribunals in India?

    Articles 323A and 323B (added by the 42nd Amendment, 1976) provide for the establishment of administrative tribunals. Article 323A allows Parliament to set up tribunals for service matters (e.g., the Central Administrative Tribunal), and Article 323B allows the appropriate legislature to set up tribunals for other specified matters such as taxation and land reforms.

Delhi Judicial Services Exam Constitution of India & Constitutional Law FAQ

What is in the Delhi Judicial Services Exam Constitution of India & Constitutional Law syllabus?

Delhi Judicial Services Exam Constitution of India & Constitutional Law is split into 5 chapters: Foundations & Preamble, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, Duties & Basic Structure, Union & State Government and Centre-State Relations & Emergency. Together they contain 22 topics and 50 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in Delhi Judicial Services Exam Constitution of India & Constitutional Law?

5 chapters, containing 22 topics and 50 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Fundamental Rights, with 6 topics.

Are there flashcards for Delhi Judicial Services Exam Constitution of India & Constitutional Law?

Yes — a 53-card Constitution of India & Constitutional Law deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.