🇺🇸 DAT (Dental Admission Test) · subject

DAT (Dental Admission Test) Biology Syllabus

The Biology syllabus for DAT (Dental Admission Test) in full: 6 chapters, 32 topics and 69 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 55 Biology flashcards with answers.

6Chapters

32Topics

69Sub-topics

55Flashcards

Biology syllabus: all 6 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

Cell and Molecular Biology
6 topics
- Cell Structure and Organelles
  - Plasma membrane and fluid mosaic model
  - Nucleus, nucleolus, and chromatin
  - Endomembrane system: ER, Golgi, lysosomes
  - Mitochondria and chloroplasts (endosymbiotic theory)
  - Cytoskeleton: microtubules, microfilaments, intermediate filaments
- Prokaryotic vs Eukaryotic Cells
  - Structural and genomic differences
  - Bacterial cell wall and capsule
- Membrane Transport
  - Passive diffusion and osmosis
  - Facilitated diffusion and active transport
  - Endocytosis and exocytosis
- Cellular Respiration
  - Glycolysis
  - Krebs (citric acid) cycle
  - Oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport chain
  - Fermentation pathways
- Photosynthesis
  - Light-dependent reactions
  - Calvin cycle
- Enzymes and Bioenergetics
  - Enzyme kinetics and regulation
  - ATP and free energy
Molecular Genetics
5 topics
- DNA Structure and Replication
  - Nucleotide composition and base pairing
  - Semiconservative replication and enzymes
- Transcription and Translation
  - RNA processing and splicing
  - Genetic code and ribosome function
- Gene Regulation
  - Operons (lac and trp)
  - Eukaryotic transcription factors and epigenetics
- Mutations and DNA Repair
  - Point, frameshift, and chromosomal mutations
  - Repair mechanisms
- Biotechnology Techniques
  - PCR and gel electrophoresis
  - Recombinant DNA and cloning
Classical Genetics
5 topics
- Mendelian Inheritance
  - Law of segregation and independent assortment
  - Monohybrid and dihybrid crosses
- Non-Mendelian Inheritance
  - Incomplete dominance and codominance
  - Polygenic and multiple alleles
  - Epistasis and pleiotropy
- Sex-Linked and Chromosomal Inheritance
  - X-linked traits
  - Nondisjunction and aneuploidy
- Population Genetics
  - Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
  - Genetic drift and gene flow
- Pedigree Analysis
  - Autosomal dominant and recessive patterns
Cellular Reproduction and Development
5 topics
- Cell Cycle
  - Interphase phases (G1, S, G2)
  - Checkpoints and cyclins
- Mitosis
  - Phases of mitosis
  - Cytokinesis
- Meiosis
  - Meiosis I and II
  - Crossing over and recombination
- Gametogenesis
  - Spermatogenesis and oogenesis
- Embryonic Development
  - Fertilization and cleavage
  - Gastrulation and germ layers
Anatomy and Physiology of Organ Systems
6 topics
- Nervous System
  - Neuron structure and action potentials
  - Synaptic transmission and neurotransmitters
  - Central and peripheral nervous systems
- Endocrine System
  - Major glands and hormones
  - Feedback regulation
- Circulatory and Respiratory Systems
  - Heart anatomy and cardiac cycle
  - Gas exchange and oxygen transport
- Digestive and Excretory Systems
  - GI tract and accessory organs
  - Nephron function and filtration
- Immune System
  - Innate and adaptive immunity
  - Antibodies and lymphocytes
- Musculoskeletal System
  - Muscle contraction (sliding filament)
  - Bone structure and types
Evolution, Diversity, and Ecology
5 topics
- Mechanisms of Evolution
  - Natural selection and adaptation
  - Speciation and isolating mechanisms
- Evidence for Evolution
  - Fossil record and homologous structures
- Taxonomy and Classification
  - Three-domain system
  - Kingdoms and major phyla
- Ecology and Populations
  - Population growth models
  - Community interactions and symbiosis
- Ecosystems and Energy Flow
  - Trophic levels and food webs
  - Biogeochemical cycles

DAT (Dental Admission Test) Biology flashcards — 55 questions with answers

What is the primary function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)?
Synthesis of proteins, via ribosomes studded on its surface, that are destined for secretion, the membrane, or lysosomes; it also folds and begins glycosylation of these proteins.
Which organelle is the site of ATP production via oxidative phosphorylation, and what unusual feature does it possess?
The mitochondrion; it contains its own circular DNA and ribosomes (supporting the endosymbiotic theory) and has a folded inner membrane (cristae).
What is the role of the Golgi apparatus?
It modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids received from the ER into vesicles for secretion or delivery to other organelles; cis face receives, trans face ships.
List four key structural differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Prokaryotes lack a membrane-bound nucleus, lack membrane-bound organelles, have 70S ribosomes, and typically have a circular DNA chromosome; eukaryotes have a nucleus, organelles, 80S ribosomes, and linear chromosomes.
Compare passive and active transport across the plasma membrane.
Passive transport moves substances down their concentration gradient without ATP (diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis); active transport moves substances against the gradient and requires energy (ATP).
What is the function of the sodium-potassium pump, and how many ions does it move per cycle?
It actively pumps 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ into the cell per ATP hydrolyzed, maintaining the resting membrane potential and ion gradients.
Define osmosis and explain what a hypertonic solution does to a cell.
Osmosis is the diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane from low to high solute concentration; a hypertonic solution causes water to leave the cell, making it shrink (crenate/plasmolyze).
What are the net products of glycolysis per glucose molecule?
2 pyruvate, 2 ATP (net), and 2 NADH; it occurs in the cytoplasm and does not require oxygen.
Where does the citric acid (Krebs) cycle occur and what are its products per turn?
In the mitochondrial matrix; per turn it produces 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 GTP (ATP), and 2 CO2 (two turns per glucose).
In the electron transport chain, what is the final electron acceptor and what is the immediate driving force for ATP synthase?
Oxygen is the final electron acceptor (forming water); ATP synthase is driven by the proton (H+) electrochemical gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane (chemiosmosis).
What are the products of fermentation in humans versus yeast?
Humans perform lactic acid fermentation (pyruvate to lactate); yeast perform alcoholic fermentation (pyruvate to ethanol + CO2); both regenerate NAD+ for glycolysis.
Write the overall balanced equation for photosynthesis.
6 CO2 + 6 H2O + light energy to C6H12O6 + 6 O2.
What occurs in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis and where?
In the thylakoid membranes, light splits water (photolysis), releasing O2, and energy is used to produce ATP and NADPH.
What is the Calvin cycle and where does it take place?
The light-independent reactions in the stroma that fix CO2 using ATP and NADPH (via the enzyme RuBisCO) to synthesize glucose (G3P).
What does an enzyme do to a chemical reaction, and how?
An enzyme increases reaction rate by lowering the activation energy; it does not change the overall free energy (delta G) or equilibrium of the reaction.
Distinguish competitive from noncompetitive enzyme inhibition.
Competitive inhibitors bind the active site (raising Km, Vmax unchanged, overcome by more substrate); noncompetitive inhibitors bind an allosteric site (lowering Vmax, Km unchanged).
In bioenergetics, what distinguishes an exergonic from an endergonic reaction?
Exergonic reactions release free energy (negative delta G, spontaneous); endergonic reactions absorb free energy (positive delta G, nonspontaneous, require energy input).
Describe the Watson-Crick model of DNA structure including base pairing.
An antiparallel double helix of two sugar-phosphate backbones; bases pair A-T (2 hydrogen bonds) and G-C (3 hydrogen bonds).
Why is DNA replication called semiconservative, and what enzyme synthesizes the new strand?
Each daughter molecule retains one original (parental) strand and one new strand; DNA polymerase synthesizes the new strand 5' to 3'.
What is the difference between the leading and lagging strands in DNA replication?
The leading strand is synthesized continuously toward the replication fork; the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously as Okazaki fragments away from the fork, later joined by DNA ligase.

Show the other 35 Biology flashcards

What are the three main steps of transcription and what enzyme carries it out?
Initiation, elongation, and termination, carried out by RNA polymerase, which synthesizes mRNA from a DNA template (5' to 3').
During translation, where does it occur and what reads the codons?
On ribosomes; tRNA molecules with anticodons read mRNA codons and deliver the matching amino acids, building a polypeptide.
What is the role of the start codon, and which amino acid does it code for in eukaryotes?
AUG is the start codon, signaling the beginning of translation and coding for methionine.
In prokaryotic gene regulation, what is an operon and what does the lac operon respond to?
An operon is a cluster of genes under a single promoter/operator; the lac operon is induced by lactose (allolactose) and repressed in its absence by the lac repressor.
Name two mechanisms of eukaryotic gene regulation that do not occur in prokaryotes.
Examples include chromatin/histone modification (epigenetics), alternative RNA splicing, and mRNA processing such as 5' capping and poly-A tail addition.
Distinguish a silent, missense, and nonsense point mutation.
Silent: codon change with no amino acid change; missense: codon change yielding a different amino acid; nonsense: codon change producing a premature stop codon.
What is the difference between a frameshift mutation and a point mutation?
A frameshift results from insertion or deletion of nucleotides (not a multiple of three), shifting the reading frame; a point mutation changes a single base pair.
Name two major DNA repair mechanisms.
Nucleotide excision repair (removes bulky lesions like thymine dimers) and mismatch repair (corrects base-pairing errors after replication); base excision repair removes damaged single bases.
What does the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) accomplish and what enzyme makes it possible?
PCR amplifies specific DNA sequences exponentially through cycles of denaturation, annealing, and extension, using heat-stable Taq polymerase.
What is gel electrophoresis used for and which direction does DNA migrate?
It separates DNA fragments by size; negatively charged DNA migrates toward the positive electrode, with smaller fragments moving farther.
State Mendel's Law of Segregation.
Each individual carries two alleles for a trait that separate (segregate) during gamete formation, so each gamete receives only one allele.
For a monohybrid cross between two heterozygotes (Aa x Aa), what is the genotypic and phenotypic ratio?
Genotypic ratio 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa; phenotypic ratio 3 dominant : 1 recessive.
Define incomplete dominance and codominance with an example each.
Incomplete dominance: heterozygote shows a blended intermediate phenotype (red x white snapdragons to pink); codominance: both alleles fully expressed (AB blood type).
How is the genotype of a person with type AB blood related to allele dominance?
They have genotype I^A I^B; both alleles are codominant, so both A and B antigens are expressed on red blood cells.
Why are X-linked recessive traits more common in males?
Males are hemizygous (XY) and need only one recessive allele on their single X to express the trait, while females (XX) need two copies.
What chromosomal nondisjunction event causes Down syndrome?
Trisomy 21, caused by failure of chromosome 21 to separate during meiosis, resulting in three copies.
State the Hardy-Weinberg allele and genotype frequency equations.
p + q = 1 and p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1, where p^2 = homozygous dominant, 2pq = heterozygous, q^2 = homozygous recessive frequencies.
List the five conditions required for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
No mutation, no natural selection, no gene flow (migration), random mating, and a very large population (no genetic drift).
In a pedigree, what pattern suggests an autosomal recessive trait?
The trait can skip generations, affects males and females equally, and unaffected (carrier) parents can produce affected offspring.
What are the four phases of the cell cycle, and what occurs during S phase?
G1, S, G2 (interphase), and M (mitosis); during S phase DNA is replicated, doubling the chromosomal DNA.
List the four phases of mitosis in order and one key event of each.
Prophase (chromosomes condense), metaphase (chromosomes align at the metaphase plate), anaphase (sister chromatids separate to poles), telophase (nuclear envelopes reform).
How does meiosis differ from mitosis in chromosome number and number of divisions?
Mitosis is one division producing two identical diploid cells; meiosis is two divisions producing four genetically distinct haploid cells (gametes).
What two events in meiosis I increase genetic variation?
Crossing over (recombination during prophase I) and independent assortment of homologous chromosomes during metaphase I.
Compare spermatogenesis and oogenesis in terms of gamete yield.
Spermatogenesis yields four functional sperm per primary spermatocyte; oogenesis yields one functional egg plus polar bodies per primary oocyte.
Name the three primary germ layers and one tissue derived from each.
Ectoderm (skin/nervous system), mesoderm (muscle/bone/blood), endoderm (gut lining/lungs).
What is the resting membrane potential of a neuron and what maintains it?
About -70 mV, maintained by the Na+/K+ pump and the membrane's higher permeability to K+ (leak channels).
How does the endocrine system differ from the nervous system in signaling?
The endocrine system uses hormones carried in the blood for slow, widespread, long-lasting effects; the nervous system uses electrical impulses and neurotransmitters for rapid, localized, short-lived effects.
Trace the path of blood through the heart starting from the body.
Body to vena cava to right atrium to right ventricle to pulmonary artery to lungs to pulmonary vein to left atrium to left ventricle to aorta to body.
Distinguish innate from adaptive immunity.
Innate immunity is nonspecific and immediate (barriers, phagocytes, inflammation); adaptive immunity is specific, slower, and has memory (B and T lymphocytes, antibodies).
What is the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction?
Myosin heads bind actin and pull the thin filaments toward the sarcomere center, shortening the sarcomere; this requires ATP and Ca2+ released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Name four mechanisms of evolution that change allele frequencies.
Natural selection, genetic drift, gene flow (migration), and mutation.
List three categories of evidence supporting evolution.
Examples: fossil record, comparative anatomy (homologous/vestigial structures), molecular/DNA homology, and embryological similarities.
State the Linnaean taxonomic hierarchy from broadest to most specific.
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species.
Differentiate exponential from logistic population growth.
Exponential growth (J-curve) is unlimited with constant per-capita rate; logistic growth (S-curve) levels off at the carrying capacity (K) as resources become limiting.
Why does only about 10% of energy transfer between trophic levels in an ecosystem?
The remaining ~90% is lost as heat through metabolism (respiration), used for life processes, or not consumed/digested, per the 10% rule of energy flow.

DAT (Dental Admission Test) Biology FAQ

What is in the DAT (Dental Admission Test) Biology syllabus?

DAT (Dental Admission Test) Biology is split into 6 chapters: Cell and Molecular Biology, Molecular Genetics, Classical Genetics, Cellular Reproduction and Development, Anatomy and Physiology of Organ Systems and Evolution, Diversity, and Ecology. Together they contain 32 topics and 69 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in DAT (Dental Admission Test) Biology?

6 chapters, containing 32 topics and 69 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Cell and Molecular Biology, with 6 topics.

Are there flashcards for DAT (Dental Admission Test) Biology?

Yes — a 55-card Biology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.