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CSIR NET Life Sciences Developmental Biology Syllabus

The Developmental Biology syllabus for CSIR NET Life Sciences in full: 5 chapters, 32 topics and 7 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 54 Developmental Biology flashcards with answers.

5Chapters
32Topics
7Sub-topics
54Flashcards

Developmental Biology syllabus: all 5 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Basic concepts of development

    13 topics
    • Potency
    • Commitment
    • Specification
    • Induction
    • Competence
    • Determination
    • Differentiation
    • Morphogenetic gradients
    • Cell fate and cell lineages
    • Stem cells
    • Genomic equivalence and the cytoplasmic determinants
    • Imprinting
    • Mutants and transgenics in analysis of development
  2. Gametogenesis, fertilization and early development

    11 topics
    • Production of gametes
    • Cell surface molecules in sperm-egg recognition in animals
    • Embryo sac development and double fertilization in plants
    • Zygote formation
    • Cleavage
    • Blastula formation
    • Embryonic fields
    • Gastrulation and formation of germ layers in animals
    • Embryogenesis
    • Establishment of symmetry in plants
    • Seed formation and germination
  3. Morphogenesis and organogenesis in animals

    3 topics
    • Cell aggregation and differentiation in Dictyostelium
    • Axes and pattern formation in Drosophila, amphibia and chick
    • Organogenesis
      • Vulva formation in Caenorhabditis elegans
      • Eye lens induction
      • Limb development and regeneration in vertebrates
      • Differentiation of neurons
      • Post embryonic development
      • Environmental regulation of normal development
      • Sex determination
  4. Morphogenesis and organogenesis in plants

    5 topics
    • Organization of shoot and root apical meristem
    • Shoot and root development
    • Leaf development and phyllotaxy
    • Transition to flowering
    • Floral meristems and floral development in Arabidopsis and Antirrhinum
  5. Programmed cell death, aging and senescence

    overview

    No separate topics listed for this chapter.

CSIR NET Life Sciences Developmental Biology flashcards — 54 questions with answers

  1. Define 'potency' in developmental biology and name the levels in order of decreasing potency.

    Potency is the total range of cell types a cell can give rise to. In decreasing order: totipotent (forms entire organism incl. extra-embryonic, e.g. zygote) > pluripotent (all three germ layers, e.g. ICM cells) > multipotent (cells within one lineage, e.g. hematopoietic stem cell) > oligopotent > unipotent (single type).

  2. Distinguish 'specification' from 'determination' (commitment).

    Specification is a reversible early commitment: a cell will follow a fate if placed in a neutral environment but can still be respecified by changing its surroundings. Determination is irreversible, stable commitment: the cell follows its fate even when transplanted to a different (non-neutral) environment.

  3. What is 'commitment' and what are its two sequential states?

    Commitment is the process by which a cell becomes restricted to a particular developmental fate. Its two states are specification (labile/reversible) followed by determination (fixed/irreversible).

  4. Define 'induction' and name the two interacting tissues involved.

    Induction is the process where one group of cells (the inducer/inducing tissue) signals to and changes the developmental fate of an adjacent group (the responding tissue). It requires a signal from the inducer and competence in the responder.

  5. What is 'competence' in the context of embryonic induction?

    Competence is the ability of a responding tissue to perceive and respond to an inductive signal. It is acquired and lost over a defined time window, so the same signal produces different effects depending on when it is received.

  6. Differentiate instructive induction from permissive induction.

    In instructive induction the signal determines which fate the responding tissue adopts (different signals give different outcomes). In permissive induction the responder is already specified and the signal merely allows/enables it to express its predetermined fate.

  7. What is 'differentiation' and does it usually involve changes in the genome?

    Differentiation is the process by which cells become structurally and functionally specialized through differential gene expression. It generally does NOT involve loss or change of genome (genomic equivalence is retained); specialization arises from which genes are expressed.

  8. Define a 'morphogen' and state how it specifies different cell fates.

    A morphogen is a diffusible signaling molecule produced from a localized source that forms a concentration gradient. Cells respond to different threshold concentrations by expressing different genes, so a single gradient specifies multiple fates in a position-dependent (concentration-dependent) manner.

  9. State the 'French Flag model' and what it explains.

    The French Flag model (Wolpert) explains positional information: a morphogen gradient across a field of cells, with two concentration thresholds, divides the field into three regions (blue/white/red) each adopting a distinct fate based on local morphogen concentration.

  10. Distinguish 'cell fate' from 'cell lineage'.

    Cell fate is what a cell will normally become during normal development (mapped by fate maps). Cell lineage is the ancestral pedigree—the complete sequence of cell divisions tracing a cell back to its progenitor (e.g. the invariant lineage of C. elegans).

  11. What is the principle of 'genomic equivalence' and which classic experiment demonstrated it?

    Genomic equivalence states that all somatic cells of an organism contain the same complete genome despite differentiating differently. It was demonstrated by Gurdon's nuclear transplantation in Xenopus (a differentiated intestinal cell nucleus into an enucleated egg produced a normal frog) and by cloning of Dolly the sheep.

  12. What are 'cytoplasmic determinants' and how do they direct cell fate?

    Cytoplasmic (morphogenetic) determinants are maternally provided molecules (mRNAs/proteins) localized unequally in the egg cytoplasm. During cleavage they are partitioned into different blastomeres, giving them distinct fates—this is the basis of autonomous (mosaic) specification.

  13. Compare mosaic (autonomous) development with regulative (conditional) development.

    Mosaic development relies on cytoplasmic determinants partitioned during cleavage; each blastomere is determined early and isolated blastomeres form only partial embryos (e.g. Ctenophores, ascidians). Regulative development relies on cell-cell interactions; isolated blastomeres can form a whole embryo (e.g. mammals, sea urchin, amphibians).

  14. Define 'genomic imprinting' and give a classic example pair.

    Genomic imprinting is parent-of-origin-specific gene expression, where only the maternal OR paternal allele is expressed due to differential epigenetic (DNA methylation) marks. Examples: Igf2 (paternally expressed) and H19 (maternally expressed); Prader-Willi (loss of paternal) vs Angelman (loss of maternal) syndromes.

  15. What are stem cells, and what two defining properties do they have?

    Stem cells are undifferentiated cells with two key properties: (1) self-renewal—they divide to make more stem cells, and (2) potency—they can differentiate into one or more specialized cell types. Division is often asymmetric (one stem + one differentiating daughter).

  16. Distinguish embryonic stem (ES) cells from adult (somatic) stem cells in potency.

    ES cells are derived from the inner cell mass of the blastocyst and are pluripotent (can form all three germ layers). Adult stem cells reside in tissues and are typically multipotent/unipotent, restricted to lineages of their tissue (e.g. hematopoietic, mesenchymal stem cells).

  17. What are induced pluripotent stem (iPS) cells and which four factors classically reprogram them?

    iPS cells are differentiated somatic cells reprogrammed to a pluripotent state. The classic Yamanaka factors are Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, and c-Myc (OSKM).

  18. How are transgenic organisms and gene knockouts used to analyze development?

    Transgenics introduce or overexpress genes (gain-of-function) to test sufficiency; knockouts/knockdowns (loss-of-function via targeted mutation, RNAi, or CRISPR) test necessity. Mutant analysis (e.g. Drosophila saturation mutagenesis screens) identifies genes controlling developmental pathways and their epistatic order.

  19. Outline gametogenesis: how do spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ in product number per primary cell?

    Spermatogenesis: one primary spermatocyte → meiosis → 4 functional, equal-sized motile sperm; continuous, with cytoplasmic reduction. Oogenesis: one primary oocyte → 1 large functional ovum + 2-3 polar bodies (unequal cytoplasmic division), arrested in meiosis, with stockpiling of cytoplasm.

  20. Describe the acrosome reaction in sperm-egg recognition in animals.

    On contact with the egg's outer coat (jelly/zona), the sperm acrosome (a lysosome-derived vesicle) undergoes exocytosis, releasing hydrolytic enzymes that digest the coat and exposing acrosomal proteins (e.g. bindin) that allow species-specific binding and fusion with the egg membrane.

Show the other 34 Developmental Biology flashcards
  1. Name the molecules mediating sperm-egg recognition in sea urchin and in mammals.

    Sea urchin: bindin on the sperm binds species-specific bindin receptor (EBR1) on the egg vitelline layer. Mammals: sperm proteins (e.g. Izumo1) bind egg receptor Juno; the zona pellucida glycoprotein ZP3 acts as the primary sperm receptor and triggers the acrosome reaction.

  2. What are the fast and slow blocks to polyspermy?

    Fast block: rapid membrane depolarization of the egg (Na+ influx) within seconds prevents additional sperm fusion (in sea urchin). Slow block (cortical reaction): Ca2+ wave triggers cortical granule exocytosis, raising the fertilization envelope/hardening the zona (zona reaction, ZP2 cleavage), permanently blocking polyspermy.

  3. Describe embryo sac (female gametophyte) development in angiosperms (Polygonum type).

    A megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to give 4 megaspores; 3 degenerate. The functional megaspore undergoes 3 mitotic divisions producing an 8-nucleate, 7-celled embryo sac: 1 egg + 2 synergids (egg apparatus at micropylar end), 3 antipodal cells (chalazal end), and 1 central cell with 2 polar nuclei.

  4. Explain 'double fertilization' in flowering plants and its two products.

    Two sperm cells delivered by the pollen tube: one fuses with the egg to form the diploid (2n) zygote; the other fuses with the two polar nuclei of the central cell to form the triploid (3n) primary endosperm nucleus, which develops into the nutritive endosperm.

  5. What molecular and structural events define zygote formation (egg activation) immediately after fertilization?

    Sperm-egg fusion triggers a Ca2+ release wave that activates the egg: completion of meiosis, cortical reaction, increased protein synthesis and metabolism, fusion of male and female pronuclei (karyogamy/amphimixis) to restore diploidy, and initiation of DNA replication for first cleavage.

  6. What is cleavage and how does it differ from ordinary cell division?

    Cleavage is a rapid series of mitotic divisions of the zygote with NO growth between divisions (G1 and G2 phases reduced/absent). It partitions the large egg cytoplasm into many smaller cells (blastomeres) without increasing total embryo size, increasing the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.

  7. How does yolk amount affect cleavage pattern? Define holoblastic and meroblastic cleavage.

    Yolk impedes cleavage. Holoblastic (complete) cleavage occurs in eggs with little yolk (isolecithal—mammals, sea urchin; moderately telolecithal—amphibians). Meroblastic (incomplete) cleavage occurs in yolk-rich eggs: discoidal in heavily telolecithal eggs (birds, fish, reptiles) and superficial in centrolecithal eggs (insects).

  8. Define radial, spiral, and rotational cleavage with an example each.

    Radial: blastomeres aligned directly above/below (deuterostomes—echinoderms, amphibians). Spiral: blastomeres offset at oblique angles due to tilted spindles (protostomes—molluscs, annelids). Rotational: first division meridional, second one cell meridional and the other equatorial (mammals).

  9. What is a blastula and what is the blastocoel?

    A blastula is the hollow ball of cells (blastomeres) formed at the end of cleavage. The blastocoel is the fluid-filled cavity within it. In mammals the equivalent is the blastocyst, with an inner cell mass and an outer trophoblast surrounding the blastocoel.

  10. What is an 'embryonic field' (morphogenetic field)?

    An embryonic field is a group of cells whose position and developmental fate are coordinately specified, behaving as a self-regulating unit that can form a complete structure (e.g. limb field, eye field) even if part is removed or rearranged—exhibiting regulation.

  11. Define gastrulation and the three germ layers it establishes.

    Gastrulation is the coordinated cell movement that converts the blastula into a multilayered gastrula, establishing the three germ layers: ectoderm (outer—skin, nervous system), mesoderm (middle—muscle, skeleton, blood, kidney), and endoderm (inner—gut lining, liver, lungs).

  12. Name the major morphogenetic movements of gastrulation.

    Invagination, involution, ingression, epiboly, delamination, and convergent extension. These movements bring presumptive endoderm and mesoderm inside and spread ectoderm over the surface.

  13. What is the Spemann-Mangold organizer and what did the experiment show?

    The dorsal lip of the blastopore (Spemann's organizer) in amphibians, when transplanted to the ventral side of a host gastrula, induced a complete secondary body axis (a twinned embryo). It demonstrated that the organizer is the primary inductive center patterning the dorso-ventral and antero-posterior axes.

  14. Define 'embryogenesis' and contrast it with organogenesis.

    Embryogenesis is the entire process from zygote to fully formed embryo—covering cleavage, blastula, gastrulation and early body plan formation. Organogenesis is the subsequent phase in which the germ layers interact to form specific organs and organ systems.

  15. How is apical-basal polarity (symmetry) first established in the plant embryo?

    The first (asymmetric) division of the zygote produces a small apical cell (gives rise to most of the embryo proper/shoot) and a large basal cell (gives rise to the suspensor and the root pole/hypophysis). Polar auxin transport via PIN proteins establishes the apical-basal axis and positions the root.

  16. Outline the stages of dicot embryo development after the zygote.

    Zygote → asymmetric division → proembryo → globular stage → heart stage (cotyledon primordia appear, radial symmetry) → torpedo stage (elongation) → mature embryo with cotyledons, shoot apical meristem, hypocotyl, and radicle/root apical meristem.

  17. What events occur during seed formation and what is dormancy?

    After double fertilization the ovule matures into the seed: the zygote forms the embryo, the central cell forms the endosperm (food reserve), and the integuments harden into the seed coat (testa). The seed dehydrates and often enters dormancy—a metabolically arrested state allowing survival until conditions favor germination.

  18. Distinguish epigeal from hypogeal germination.

    Epigeal germination: hypocotyl elongates and pushes the cotyledons above the soil (e.g. bean, castor). Hypogeal germination: epicotyl elongates while cotyledons remain below the soil surface (e.g. pea, maize). Germination begins with imbibition of water.

  19. Describe cell aggregation and differentiation in Dictyostelium discoideum.

    Upon starvation, amoebae secrete cyclic AMP (cAMP) as a chemoattractant; cells stream and aggregate toward cAMP pulses. The aggregate forms a motile slug (pseudoplasmodium) which culminates into a fruiting body: anterior prestalk cells form the dead stalk and posterior prespore cells form viable spores.

  20. What signal organizes Dictyostelium aggregation and what determines prestalk vs prespore fate?

    Pulsatile cAMP relayed cell-to-cell organizes chemotactic aggregation. Cell fate is influenced by DIF-1 (differentiation-inducing factor, promotes prestalk/stalk) and cAMP (promotes prespore), with position in the slug correlating to fate.

  21. In Drosophila, name the maternal-effect genes that set up the anterior and posterior poles.

    Anterior is set by bicoid (Bicoid protein gradient, a transcription factor, high anterior) and posterior by nanos (Nanos represses maternal hunchback). caudal and hunchback also contribute. These maternal gradients establish the antero-posterior axis.

  22. List the hierarchy of zygotic segmentation genes in Drosophila in order of action.

    Gap genes (e.g. hunchback, Krüppel, knirps—broad regions) → pair-rule genes (e.g. even-skipped, fushi tarazu—alternate segments/7 stripes) → segment polarity genes (e.g. engrailed, wingless, hedgehog—anterior/posterior of each segment). Then homeotic (Hox) genes specify segment identity.

  23. What do Drosophila homeotic (Hox) genes do, and name the two complexes?

    Hox genes specify the identity of each segment along the A-P axis; mutations cause homeotic transformations (e.g. Antennapedia—legs in place of antennae; bithorax—extra wings). The two complexes are the Antennapedia complex (ANT-C) and the Bithorax complex (BX-C), together the HOM-C, showing spatial colinearity.

  24. How is dorso-ventral polarity established in the Xenopus embryo?

    Sperm entry triggers ~30° cortical rotation, moving dorsal determinants (Wnt pathway components stabilizing β-catenin) to the future dorsal side opposite the sperm entry point. This creates the Nieuwkoop center, which induces the dorsal organizer; the gray crescent marks the dorsal region.

  25. How is the anterior-posterior axis established in the chick embryo, and what is Hensen's node?

    In the chick, gravity and the primitive streak set the A-P axis; the streak elongates from posterior to anterior. Hensen's node, at the anterior tip of the primitive streak, is the avian/amniote equivalent of the Spemann organizer, directing gastrulation and axis induction.

  26. What is organogenesis and give an example of an organ formed by epithelial-mesenchymal induction.

    Organogenesis is the formation of organs from the three germ layers via inductive tissue interactions, proliferation, migration and differentiation. Example: vertebrate limb (AER/ZPA interactions), kidney (ureteric bud induces metanephric mesenchyme), and lens (optic vesicle induces overlying ectoderm).

  27. Describe the organization (zonation) of the shoot apical meristem (SAM).

    The SAM has cytohistological zones: a central zone (slowly dividing stem cells, maintained by WUSCHEL-CLAVATA feedback), a peripheral zone (rapidly dividing cells giving rise to lateral organs), and a rib zone (forms central stem tissue). It also has tunica (surface layers, anticlinal divisions) and corpus (inner cells).

  28. Explain the WUS-CLV feedback loop maintaining the shoot apical meristem.

    WUSCHEL (WUS) is expressed in the organizing center and moves to the central zone to maintain stem cell identity. Stem cells express CLAVATA3 (CLV3), a peptide that signals through CLV1/CLV2 receptors to restrict WUS expression. This negative feedback keeps the stem cell pool size constant.

  29. Contrast the organization of the root apical meristem (RAM) with the SAM, and define the quiescent center.

    The RAM contains the quiescent center (QC)—mitotically inactive cells that maintain surrounding stem cells (initials) and prevent their differentiation. Unlike the SAM, the RAM produces cells in two directions: distally the root cap (protective) and proximally the root body tissues. SCR/SHR and PLT genes pattern the RAM.

  30. Define phyllotaxy and explain how leaf primordium positioning is controlled.

    Phyllotaxy is the arrangement of leaves around the stem (alternate, opposite, whorled, or spiral—often following the Fibonacci angle ~137.5°). Positioning is governed by auxin maxima created by PIN1-mediated polar auxin transport: a new primordium forms at the auxin maximum, depleting auxin nearby and spacing successive primordia.

  31. Describe leaf development including establishment of adaxial-abaxial polarity.

    A leaf primordium arises from the SAM peripheral zone and grows along proximo-distal, medio-lateral, and adaxial-abaxial axes. Adaxial (upper) identity is specified by HD-ZIPIII genes (e.g. PHABULOSA) and abaxial (lower) by KANADI and YABBY genes plus miR165/166; their juxtaposition is required for lamina (blade) outgrowth.

  32. What is the 'transition to flowering' and which major pathways control it?

    It is the switch of the SAM from vegetative growth to forming an inflorescence/floral meristem. Controlled by integrating pathways: photoperiod (CONSTANS→FT 'florigen' from leaves), vernalization (cold represses FLC), gibberellin, autonomous, and age (miR156/SPL) pathways, converging on floral integrators FT and SOC1 and meristem identity gene LEAFY.

  33. State the ABC model of floral organ identity in Arabidopsis.

    Floral organ identity is specified by combinatorial homeotic gene action across four whorls: A alone → sepals; A+B → petals; B+C → stamens; C alone → carpels. A and C are mutually antagonistic. In Arabidopsis: A = APETALA1/APETALA2; B = APETALA3/PISTILLATA; C = AGAMOUS (the ABC(E) genes are mostly MADS-box).

  34. How does the ABC model in Antirrhinum compare with Arabidopsis, and what do classes E (and D) add?

    Antirrhinum (snapdragon) uses orthologous genes: B = DEFICIENS/GLOBOSA, C = PLENA; the same A+B+C logic applies. Class E (SEPALLATA, MADS-box) proteins are required together with A/B/C to form all organ types (the ABCE 'quartet' model), and class D (e.g. SEEDSTICK) specifies ovule identity.

CSIR NET Life Sciences Developmental Biology FAQ

What is in the CSIR NET Life Sciences Developmental Biology syllabus?

CSIR NET Life Sciences Developmental Biology is split into 5 chapters: Basic concepts of development, Gametogenesis, fertilization and early development, Morphogenesis and organogenesis in animals, Morphogenesis and organogenesis in plants and Programmed cell death, aging and senescence. Together they contain 32 topics and 7 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in CSIR NET Life Sciences Developmental Biology?

5 chapters, containing 32 topics and 7 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Basic concepts of development, with 13 topics.

Are there flashcards for CSIR NET Life Sciences Developmental Biology?

Yes — a 54-card Developmental Biology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.