πΊπΈ CompTIA Security+ Β· subject
CompTIA Security+ Security Operations Syllabus
The Security Operations syllabus for CompTIA Security+ in full: 6 chapters, 28 topics and 70 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 68 Security Operations flashcards with answers.
Security Operations syllabus: all 6 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Applying Security Techniques to Computing Resources
5 topics- Secure Baselines
- Establishing baselines
- Deploying and maintaining baselines
- Hardening Targets
- Mobile devices, workstations, servers
- Switches, routers, cloud infrastructure
- ICS/SCADA, IoT, embedded, RTOS
- Mobile Solutions
- Mobile device management (MDM)
- Deployment models: BYOD, COPE, CYOD
- Connection methods: cellular, Wi-Fi, Bluetooth
- Wireless Security Settings
- WPA3 and AAA/RADIUS
- Cryptographic protocols and authentication protocols
- Application Security
- Input validation and secure cookies
- Static and dynamic code analysis
- Code signing and sandboxing
- Secure Baselines
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Asset and Vulnerability Management
4 topics- Asset Management
- Acquisition/procurement and assignment/accounting
- Monitoring/asset tracking and inventory
- Disposal/decommissioning: sanitization, destruction, retention
- Vulnerability Identification
- Vulnerability scans and application security testing
- Threat feeds: OSINT, dark web, ISACs
- Penetration testing and bug bounty
- Analysis and Prioritization
- CVSS and CVE
- Vulnerability classification and exposure factor
- False positives/negatives
- Vulnerability Response and Remediation
- Patching, insurance, segmentation
- Compensating controls and exceptions/exemptions
- Validation of remediation and reporting
- Asset Management
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Security Monitoring and Alerting
4 topics- Monitoring Resources
- Systems, applications, infrastructure
- Monitoring Activities
- Log aggregation and alerting
- Scanning, reporting, archiving
- Monitoring Tools
- SIEM and SCAP
- Antivirus, DLP, SNMP traps
- NetFlow and vulnerability scanners
- Alert Response and Remediation
- Quarantine and alert tuning
- Validation and reporting
- Monitoring Resources
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Enhancing Enterprise Security Capabilities
5 topics- Firewall and Filtering
- Rules, access lists, ports/protocols
- Screened subnets
- IDS/IPS and Web Filtering
- Signatures and trends
- Content/URL filtering, agent-based, centralized proxy
- Block rules and reputation
- Email Security
- DKIM, SPF, DMARC
- Email gateway and security
- Endpoint Detection and DNS Filtering
- EDR and XDR
- DNS filtering
- Network Access and File Integrity
- Network access control (NAC)
- File integrity monitoring
- User behavior analytics
- Firewall and Filtering
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Identity and Access Management
5 topics- Provisioning and Identity
- Provisioning/de-provisioning user accounts
- Identity proofing and federation
- Single sign-on: LDAP, OAuth, SAML
- Access Controls
- Mandatory and discretionary
- Role-based, rule-based, attribute-based
- Time-of-day and least privilege
- Multifactor Authentication
- Factors: something you know/have/are, somewhere you are
- Implementations: biometrics, hard/soft tokens, security keys
- Password Concepts
- Password best practices: length, complexity, reuse, age
- Password managers and passwordless
- Privileged Access Management
- Just-in-time permissions
- Password vaulting and ephemeral credentials
- Provisioning and Identity
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Automation and Incident Response
5 topics- Automation and Orchestration
- Use cases: ticket creation, onboarding, security groups
- Benefits: efficiency, baseline enforcement, reaction time
- Considerations: complexity, cost, technical debt
- Incident Response Process
- Preparation and detection
- Analysis and containment
- Eradication, recovery, lessons learned
- Incident Response Activities
- Training and testing (tabletop, simulation)
- Root cause analysis and threat hunting
- Digital Forensics
- Legal hold and chain of custody
- Acquisition and preservation
- E-discovery and reporting
- Investigation Data Sources
- Log data: firewall, application, endpoint, OS
- Vulnerability scans, packet captures, dashboards
- Automation and Orchestration
CompTIA Security+ Security Operations flashcards β 68 questions with answers
What is a secure baseline, and what are its three lifecycle stages?
A secure baseline is a documented, standardized minimum security configuration for a system or device. Its three stages are: Establish (define the secure config), Deploy (apply it to systems), and Maintain (update it as threats and requirements change).
What does 'hardening' a system mean?
Hardening is reducing a system's attack surface by removing unnecessary software, services, and accounts, closing unused ports, disabling default credentials, and applying patches and secure configurations.
List common hardening targets an organization must secure.
Workstations, servers, mobile devices, switches, routers, cloud infrastructure, ICS/SCADA systems, embedded systems, RTOS, and IoT devices.
Compare MDM, MAM, and UEM in mobile device management.
MDM (Mobile Device Management) controls the whole device. MAM (Mobile Application Management) controls only specific managed apps/data. UEM (Unified Endpoint Management) manages all endpoint types (mobile, desktop, IoT) from a single platform.
Compare BYOD, COPE, COBO, and CYOD mobile deployment models.
BYOD: employee-owned device used for work. COPE: company-owned, personally enabled (org owns, personal use allowed). COBO: company-owned, business only. CYOD: employee chooses from a company-approved list of devices the company owns.
Which cellular/connection methods are relevant to mobile security, and what risk does each carry?
Cellular, Wi-Fi, and Bluetooth. Cellular can be intercepted via rogue base stations; Wi-Fi is vulnerable to eavesdropping/rogue APs; Bluetooth is vulnerable to bluejacking, bluesnarfing, and bluebugging at short range.
Compare WPA2 and WPA3, including their respective handshake/encryption methods.
WPA2 uses AES-CCMP with a 4-way handshake (PSK) vulnerable to offline dictionary attacks. WPA3 uses SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals / Dragonfly handshake) providing forward secrecy and protection against offline cracking, plus GCMP encryption.
In WPA Enterprise, what are the roles of the supplicant, authenticator, and authentication server?
Supplicant = the client device requesting access. Authenticator = the AP/switch that forwards credentials. Authentication server = the RADIUS server that validates credentials. This is the 802.1X framework.
What is the difference between EAP-TLS, EAP-TTLS, and PEAP?
EAP-TLS requires certificates on both server and client (mutual auth, strongest). EAP-TTLS requires only a server certificate and tunnels client credentials. PEAP also uses a server certificate to create a TLS tunnel protecting an inner authentication method like MSCHAPv2.
What are input validation, secure cookies, and code signing in application security?
Input validation checks/sanitizes user input to prevent injection attacks. Secure cookies use flags (Secure, HttpOnly) to protect session data. Code signing uses a digital signature to verify software author and integrity before execution.
What is the difference between SAST and DAST?
SAST (Static Application Security Testing) analyzes source code without running it (white-box, early in SDLC). DAST (Dynamic Application Security Testing) tests a running application from the outside (black-box, finds runtime/environment flaws).
What is sandboxing in the context of application security?
Sandboxing runs code or applications in an isolated environment with restricted access to system resources, so untrusted or new software can be tested or executed without affecting the host system.
What is the purpose of asset management, and what are the acquisition and disposal stages?
Asset management tracks ownership, classification, and lifecycle of assets. Acquisition/procurement establishes ownership and assigns the asset; disposal/decommissioning includes sanitization, destruction, certification, and data retention compliance before retirement.
What are the main media sanitization methods and their effects?
Clearing (overwrite, reusable), Purging/degaussing (stronger removal via overwriting or magnetic field, may render media unusable), and Destruction (shredding, pulverizing, incinerating, melting β physically destroys media).
What are the main methods of vulnerability identification?
Vulnerability scans, application security testing (SAST/DAST), penetration testing, responsible disclosure / bug bounty programs, threat intelligence feeds (OSINT, dark web), and system/process audits.
What is the difference between a credentialed and non-credentialed vulnerability scan?
A credentialed scan logs in with valid account credentials to inspect the system from the inside (more thorough, fewer false positives). A non-credentialed scan tests from the outside without login, simulating an attacker's external view.
Differentiate a false positive, false negative, true positive, and true negative in scanning.
True positive: a real vulnerability correctly reported. False positive: a vulnerability reported that doesn't actually exist. True negative: correctly reporting no vulnerability. False negative: a real vulnerability missed/not reported (most dangerous).
What does CVE stand for, and what does CVSS measure?
CVE = Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures, a unique identifier for a publicly known vulnerability. CVSS = Common Vulnerability Scoring System, a 0β10 numeric severity score used to prioritize remediation.
What are the CVSS severity rating bands?
None: 0.0; Low: 0.1β3.9; Medium: 4.0β6.9; High: 7.0β8.9; Critical: 9.0β10.0.
What factors are used to prioritize vulnerabilities beyond CVSS score?
Exposure factor, environmental variables, industry/organizational impact, risk tolerance, asset criticality/classification, and whether the vulnerability is actively exploited in the wild (e.g., on CISA's KEV catalog).
Show the other 48 Security Operations flashcards
What are the possible vulnerability response/remediation options?
Patching, insurance, segmentation, compensating controls, applying exceptions/exemptions, and (in some cases) accepting the risk. Remediation must be validated through rescanning, audit, and verification, then documented via reporting.
What is a compensating control in vulnerability response?
A compensating control is an alternative safeguard applied when the primary remediation (like patching) cannot be immediately implemented, reducing risk to an acceptable level (e.g., isolating a vulnerable system behind a firewall).
What is the difference between a vulnerability exception and segmentation as a response?
An exception/exemption is a formally documented and approved acceptance of an unremediated vulnerability. Segmentation isolates the vulnerable system on a separate network segment to limit exposure and lateral movement.
What monitoring resources should a security team monitor?
Systems, applications, and infrastructure (the three primary resources), plus log data, network traffic, and user/account activity across them.
What is the difference between log aggregation and a SIEM?
Log aggregation collects and consolidates logs from many sources into a central location. A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) aggregates AND correlates, alerts, and analyzes those logs in real time to detect security events.
Define scanning, archiving, alerting, and reporting in monitoring activities.
Scanning: actively probing systems for issues. Archiving: retaining logs/data for later analysis and compliance. Alerting: generating notifications when defined thresholds/conditions are met. Reporting: summarizing findings for stakeholders.
What is the difference between alert tuning and an alert threshold?
An alert threshold is the condition value that triggers an alert. Alert tuning is the ongoing process of adjusting rules/thresholds to reduce false positives and alert fatigue while keeping true detections.
What is SNMP used for, and what is the security difference between SNMPv2 and SNMPv3?
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) monitors and manages network devices. SNMPv2 sends community strings in cleartext (insecure). SNMPv3 adds authentication, encryption, and message integrity.
What is NetFlow used for in monitoring?
NetFlow is a protocol that collects metadata about IP traffic flows (source/destination, ports, volume) for network traffic analysis, bandwidth monitoring, and anomaly/threat detection.
What is the difference between SIEM, SNMP traps, and NetFlow as monitoring tools?
SIEM centralizes and correlates logs/events for security analysis. SNMP traps are asynchronous alerts pushed by devices when an event occurs. NetFlow captures traffic flow metadata for volume/behavior analysis.
What are the alert response and remediation states a SOC analyst assigns to alerts?
Quarantine (isolate the threat), Alert tuning (reduce noise), and validation states such as true/false positive and true/false negative used to triage and respond to alerts.
Compare a stateless and a stateful firewall.
A stateless firewall filters each packet independently against static ACL rules. A stateful firewall tracks the state of active connections and makes decisions based on connection context, allowing return traffic for established sessions.
What is a next-generation firewall (NGFW) and how does it differ from a UTM?
An NGFW adds application-layer (Layer 7) awareness, deep packet inspection, and integrated IPS to traditional firewalling. A UTM (Unified Threat Management) bundles multiple security functions (firewall, antivirus, content filter, VPN) into one appliance.
What is a WAF and at what layer does it operate?
A Web Application Firewall (WAF) operates at Layer 7 (application layer) to filter, monitor, and block malicious HTTP/HTTPS traffic to web apps, protecting against attacks like SQL injection and XSS.
What is the difference between an IDS and an IPS?
An IDS (Intrusion Detection System) detects and alerts on malicious activity but does not block it (passive). An IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) sits inline and can actively block/drop malicious traffic (active).
Compare signature-based and anomaly-based detection.
Signature-based detection matches traffic against known attack patterns (good for known threats, misses new ones). Anomaly/behavior-based detection flags deviations from a learned baseline (can catch zero-days but produces more false positives).
What is the difference between a URL filter and a content/DNS filter in web filtering?
A URL filter blocks specific web addresses or categories. A content filter inspects page content/keywords. A DNS filter blocks resolution of malicious or disallowed domains at the DNS-query level before connection.
What is an agent-based vs agentless web filter?
An agent-based web filter installs software on each endpoint to enforce policy anywhere the device goes. An agentless (centralized proxy) filter enforces policy at a network chokepoint and only protects devices on that network.
What email security mechanisms exist, and what does each verify?
SPF verifies the sending mail server is authorized for the domain. DKIM adds a cryptographic signature verifying message integrity and origin. DMARC builds on SPF/DKIM to set policy (none/quarantine/reject) and reporting for failures.
What is an email security gateway?
An email/secure email gateway is a server or service that filters inbound and outbound email to block spam, phishing, malware, and data exfiltration before messages reach users.
What is EDR, and how does XDR extend it?
EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) continuously monitors endpoints to detect, investigate, and respond to threats. XDR (Extended Detection and Response) correlates data across endpoints, network, email, and cloud for unified detection and response.
How does DNS filtering protect endpoints?
DNS filtering blocks DNS queries to known-malicious or policy-violating domains, preventing the device from ever connecting to phishing sites, malware C2 servers, or blocked content.
What is NAC (Network Access Control) and what does it enforce?
NAC controls which devices can connect to a network, enforcing posture/health checks (patch level, AV status, configuration) before granting access, and can quarantine non-compliant devices.
What is file integrity monitoring (FIM)?
FIM detects unauthorized changes to critical files and configurations by comparing current file states (hashes/attributes) against a known-good baseline and alerting on differences.
What are the four stages of the identity/account provisioning lifecycle?
Provisioning (create the account/identity), Permission assignment (grant appropriate access), Periodic review/attestation (verify access is still appropriate), and De-provisioning (disable/remove access when no longer needed).
Compare DAC, MAC, RBAC, and ABAC access control models.
DAC: owner sets permissions (discretionary). MAC: system enforces access via labels/clearances (mandatory, non-overridable). RBAC: access based on job role. ABAC: access based on attributes/policies (user, resource, environment conditions).
What is the principle of least privilege and how does it differ from rule-based access control?
Least privilege grants users only the minimum access needed for their job. Rule-based access control applies global if/then rules (e.g., time-of-day or ACL conditions) to all users regardless of role.
What are the three authentication factor categories, and which are combined for true MFA?
Something you know (password/PIN), something you have (token/phone), and something you are (biometric). True MFA requires factors from at least two different categories β two passwords is not MFA.
What is the difference between TOTP and HOTP?
HOTP (HMAC-based One-Time Password) generates a code from a counter that increments per use. TOTP (Time-based One-Time Password) generates a code from the current time, so it expires after a short window (e.g., 30 seconds).
What are key password policy concepts: length, complexity, reuse, expiration, and age?
Length = minimum characters (most impactful). Complexity = mix of character types. Reuse = prevents using previous passwords. Expiration = forces periodic change. Age = minimum time before a password can be changed again.
What is password spraying, and how does account lockout defend against it?
Password spraying tries a few common passwords across many accounts to avoid lockouts. Account lockout (after N failed attempts) limits guesses per account, mitigating brute-force and spraying attacks.
What is a password manager and what is passwordless authentication?
A password manager is a vault that securely stores and generates strong, unique passwords. Passwordless authentication removes passwords entirely, using factors like biometrics, hardware security keys (FIDO2/WebAuthn), or magic links.
What is PAM (Privileged Access Management) and what is just-in-time permission?
PAM secures, controls, and monitors accounts with elevated privileges. Just-in-time (JIT) permission grants elevated access only for a limited time when needed, then revokes it, minimizing standing privilege.
What is a password vault and ephemeral credential in PAM?
A password vault securely stores and rotates privileged account credentials, brokering access without revealing the password. Ephemeral credentials are temporary, single-use credentials issued for one session that expire automatically.
What are the main benefits of automation and orchestration in security operations?
Efficiency/time savings, enforcing baselines, standard infrastructure configurations, scaling securely, employee retention, reaction time, and acting as a workforce multiplier β all with consistent, repeatable execution.
What is the difference between automation and orchestration?
Automation makes a single task run without manual effort. Orchestration coordinates multiple automated tasks and tools into a unified end-to-end workflow (e.g., a SOAR playbook executing many steps across systems).
What is SOAR and how does it relate to a playbook?
SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) integrates tools to automate incident response. A playbook is the defined, ordered set of automated/manual steps SOAR executes to handle a specific type of incident.
What are the considerations/risks when using automation and orchestration?
Complexity, cost, single point of failure, technical debt, and ongoing supportability. Poorly designed automation can propagate errors quickly across many systems.
List the phases of the incident response process (NIST/CompTIA model).
Preparation, Detection, Analysis, Containment, Eradication, Recovery, and Lessons Learned (post-incident activity).
What is the difference between containment, eradication, and recovery?
Containment limits the spread/damage of an incident (isolate affected systems). Eradication removes the threat (malware, accounts, vulnerabilities). Recovery restores systems to normal operation and validates they are clean.
What is the difference between a tabletop exercise and a simulation in incident response?
A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based walkthrough of a scenario by the response team (low cost, no live systems). A simulation actively executes a scenario (e.g., a simulated phishing attack) to test real responses and tooling.
What are root cause analysis and threat hunting in incident response activities?
Root cause analysis identifies the underlying reason an incident occurred to prevent recurrence. Threat hunting is proactively searching networks/systems for hidden threats that evaded existing detection controls.
What is the order of volatility in digital forensics?
Collect evidence from most to least volatile: CPU registers/cache β RAM (memory) β network/routing/ARP cache β temporary files/swap β disk/storage β remote logging/archived media. Most volatile data must be captured first.
What is chain of custody and why is it critical in forensics?
Chain of custody is the documented, unbroken record of who collected, handled, transferred, and stored evidence, with times and reasons. It ensures evidence integrity and admissibility in legal proceedings.
What is legal hold and e-discovery in digital forensics?
Legal hold (preservation) is the requirement to retain potentially relevant data once litigation is anticipated. E-discovery is the process of identifying, collecting, and producing electronically stored information for legal proceedings.
Why is data acquisition order and hashing important when imaging evidence?
Forensic imaging captures a bit-for-bit copy of media, and a cryptographic hash (e.g., SHA-256) of the original and the image proves the copy is identical and unaltered, preserving evidence integrity.
What investigation data sources are used during an incident, and what does each provide?
Dashboards (summarized view), automated reports, vulnerability scans, packet captures, firewall/IDS/IPS logs, application/OS/endpoint/network logs, metadata, and vulnerability scan output β each provides evidence of activity for analysis.
What is the difference between a firewall log and an IPS/IDS log as data sources?
A firewall log records allowed/denied connections based on rules (who connected where). An IDS/IPS log records detected/blocked attack signatures or anomalies (what malicious activity was attempted), giving threat context.
CompTIA Security+ Security Operations FAQ
What is in the CompTIA Security+ Security Operations syllabus?
CompTIA Security+ Security Operations is split into 6 chapters: Applying Security Techniques to Computing Resources, Asset and Vulnerability Management, Security Monitoring and Alerting, Enhancing Enterprise Security Capabilities, Identity and Access Management and Automation and Incident Response. Together they contain 28 topics and 70 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in CompTIA Security+ Security Operations?
6 chapters, containing 28 topics and 70 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Applying Security Techniques to Computing Resources, with 5 topics.
Are there flashcards for CompTIA Security+ Security Operations?
Yes β a 68-card Security Operations deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.