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CompTIA A+ / Network+ / Security+ CompTIA Security+: Threats, Attacks & Cryptography (SY0-701) Syllabus

The CompTIA Security+: Threats, Attacks & Cryptography (SY0-701) syllabus for CompTIA A+ / Network+ / Security+ in full: 3 chapters, 12 topics and 26 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 56 CompTIA Security+: Threats, Attacks & Cryptography (SY0-701) flashcards with answers.

3Chapters
12Topics
26Sub-topics
56Flashcards

CompTIA Security+: Threats, Attacks & Cryptography (SY0-701) syllabus: all 3 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. General Security Concepts

    3 topics
    • Security Controls
      • Categories: technical, managerial, operational, physical
      • Types: preventive, deterrent, detective, corrective, compensating, directive
    • Fundamental Security Principles
      • CIA triad and non-repudiation
      • Authentication, authorisation and accounting (AAA)
      • Zero trust: control and data planes
    • Change Management and Security
      • Approval, ownership, impact analysis and backout plans
  2. Threats, Vulnerabilities and Mitigations

    5 topics
    • Threat Actors and Motivations
      • Nation-state, hacktivist, insider, organised crime
      • Attributes: resources, sophistication and intent
    • Attack Surfaces and Threat Vectors
      • Message-based, image-based and supply-chain vectors
      • Removable media and unsecured networks
    • Common Attack Types
      • Malware: ransomware, trojans, worms, spyware, logic bombs
      • Application attacks: injection, XSS, CSRF, buffer overflow
      • Network attacks: DDoS, on-path, DNS poisoning, replay
    • Social Engineering
      • Phishing, pretexting, business email compromise
      • Watering hole, typosquatting and impersonation
    • Vulnerability Management
      • Scanning, CVSS scoring and CVE references
      • Patch management and remediation prioritisation
  3. Cryptographic Solutions

    4 topics
    • Cryptography Fundamentals
      • Symmetric versus asymmetric encryption
      • Hashing, salting and digital signatures
    • Public Key Infrastructure
      • Certificate authorities, CSRs and chains of trust
      • Certificate revocation: CRL and OCSP
    • Encryption Applications
      • Full-disk, file, database and transport encryption
      • TLS, IPsec and VPN tunnelling
    • Cryptographic Concepts and Tools
      • Key exchange, key escrow and stretching
      • Trusted Platform Module and hardware security modules
      • Blockchain, steganography and obfuscation

CompTIA A+ / Network+ / Security+ CompTIA Security+: Threats, Attacks & Cryptography (SY0-701) flashcards — 56 questions with answers

  1. What are the four main categories of security controls by type?

    Technical (technological/logical, e.g. firewalls, encryption), Managerial (administrative policies and oversight, e.g. risk assessments), Operational (implemented by people, e.g. security guards, awareness training), and Physical (tangible barriers, e.g. locks, fences).

  2. List the six functional categories of security controls.

    Preventive (stop an incident), Deterrent (discourage an attacker), Detective (identify/log an incident), Corrective (fix/restore after an incident), Compensating (alternative when primary control is infeasible), and Directive (instruct/guide behavior, e.g. policies).

  3. What does the CIA triad stand for?

    Confidentiality (preventing unauthorized disclosure), Integrity (ensuring data is not altered without authorization), and Availability (ensuring authorized users have reliable access to resources).

  4. What is non-repudiation and how is it commonly achieved?

    Non-repudiation ensures a party cannot deny having performed an action (e.g. sending a message). It is commonly achieved with digital signatures, audit logs, and timestamps.

  5. What is the AAA framework in security?

    Authentication (verifying identity), Authorization (granting appropriate permissions/access), and Accounting (tracking and logging user activity).

  6. What is the principle of 'Zero Trust' and its two planes?

    Zero Trust assumes no implicit trust and verifies every request ('never trust, always verify'). It separates the Control Plane (policy decisions: adaptive identity, policy engine, policy administrator) from the Data Plane (policy enforcement: subject/system, policy enforcement point).

  7. Define the principle of least privilege.

    Users, processes, and systems should be granted only the minimum access rights and permissions necessary to perform their required functions, and no more.

  8. What is defense in depth (layered security)?

    A strategy that uses multiple, overlapping layers of security controls so that if one control fails, others continue to protect the asset.

  9. What is a honeypot versus a honeynet?

    A honeypot is a single decoy system designed to lure and study attackers. A honeynet is a network of multiple honeypots simulating a realistic environment to observe attacker behavior at scale.

  10. Why is change management important to security, and what risk does unapproved change create?

    Change management ensures modifications are reviewed, approved, tested, and documented so they don't introduce vulnerabilities or outages. Unapproved (unauthorized) changes can create misconfigurations, security gaps, and untracked attack surface.

  11. What is the purpose of a maintenance window and a backout (rollback) plan in change management?

    A maintenance window is a scheduled period for performing changes to minimize business disruption. A backout/rollback plan defines how to revert a change if it fails or causes problems, restoring the prior known-good state.

  12. In change management, what are the typical 'impact analysis' considerations before approval?

    Assessing the scope, affected systems/dependencies, downtime, risk to security and operations, required resources, and test results, plus stakeholder approval from the Change Advisory Board (CAB).

  13. What are the technical implications of change documented under 'allow/deny lists' and 'restricted activities'?

    Updating allow/deny lists, respecting restricted activities and downtime, handling service/application restarts, legacy applications, and dependencies that the change may affect.

  14. List the main categories of threat actors.

    Nation-state/APT, Organized crime, Hacktivist, Insider threat, Unskilled attacker ('script kiddie'), and Shadow IT.

  15. What distinguishes an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)?

    An APT is typically a nation-state or highly resourced actor that gains long-term, stealthy, persistent access to a network, with high sophistication, large funding, and strategic/espionage motivation.

  16. List common motivations of threat actors.

    Financial gain, espionage, data exfiltration, service disruption, blackmail/extortion, revenge, ethical/hacktivism, war, philosophical/political beliefs, and chaos.

  17. Compare internal vs external threat actor attributes.

    Internal actors (insiders) have authorized access and knowledge of systems but usually fewer resources. External actors lack inside access but may range from low to very high resources/funding and sophistication.

  18. What is an attack surface and an attack (threat) vector?

    An attack surface is the total set of points where an attacker could attempt entry. A threat vector is the specific path or method used to gain access (e.g. email, removable media, unsecured network).

  19. Name common threat vectors (paths of attack).

    Message-based (email, SMS, IM), image-based, file-based, voice calls (vishing), removable devices/USB, vulnerable software, unsupported systems, unsecure networks, open service ports, default credentials, and the supply chain.

  20. What is a supply chain attack and give examples of entry points.

    An attack that compromises a target through a trusted third party. Entry points include managed service providers (MSPs), vendors, hardware/software suppliers, and tampered/maliciously updated components.

Show the other 36 CompTIA Security+: Threats, Attacks & Cryptography (SY0-701) flashcards
  1. Differentiate a DoS attack from a DDoS attack.

    A DoS (Denial of Service) attack overwhelms a target from a single source. A DDoS (Distributed DoS) uses many compromised systems (a botnet) simultaneously, making it harder to block and far more powerful.

  2. What is an on-path (man-in-the-middle) attack?

    An attacker secretly positions themselves between two communicating parties to intercept, read, or modify traffic without either party's knowledge.

  3. Explain a replay attack.

    An attacker captures valid data transmission (e.g. an authentication token or session) and retransmits it later to impersonate a user or repeat a transaction. Defenses include nonces, timestamps, and session tokens.

  4. What is the difference between SQL injection and cross-site scripting (XSS)?

    SQL injection inserts malicious SQL into input fields to manipulate a backend database. XSS injects malicious scripts into web pages that execute in other users' browsers, targeting clients rather than the database.

  5. What is a buffer overflow attack?

    An attack that writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, overwriting adjacent memory to crash the system or execute injected malicious code.

  6. Compare a race condition / TOCTOU vulnerability.

    A race condition occurs when the outcome depends on the timing of events. TOCTOU (Time-of-Check to Time-of-Use) exploits the gap between when a resource is checked and when it is used to alter it in between.

  7. What is privilege escalation, and what are its two types?

    Gaining higher access rights than authorized. Vertical (privilege) escalation gains higher-level rights (user to admin); horizontal escalation accesses another user's resources at the same privilege level.

  8. Define social engineering.

    Manipulating people into divulging confidential information or performing actions that compromise security, exploiting human psychology rather than technical vulnerabilities.

  9. Distinguish phishing, spear phishing, and whaling.

    Phishing is mass fraudulent messaging to many targets. Spear phishing is targeted at a specific individual or group. Whaling targets high-value executives (e.g. CEOs, CFOs).

  10. Differentiate vishing, smishing, and pharming.

    Vishing is phishing by voice/phone call. Smishing is phishing via SMS text. Pharming redirects users from a legitimate site to a fraudulent one (often via DNS poisoning) to harvest credentials.

  11. List the key principles (motivational triggers) social engineers exploit.

    Authority, Intimidation, Consensus/social proof, Scarcity, Urgency, Familiarity/liking, and Trust.

  12. What is pretexting and a business email compromise (BEC)?

    Pretexting is inventing a fabricated scenario/identity to gain trust and extract information. BEC is a targeted attack where an attacker impersonates an executive or trusted party (often via spoofed email) to authorize fraudulent transfers or data release.

  13. What is the difference between a vulnerability scan and a penetration test?

    A vulnerability scan automatically identifies and reports known weaknesses without exploiting them. A penetration test actively exploits vulnerabilities to demonstrate real-world impact and depth of compromise.

  14. Compare credentialed (authenticated) vs non-credentialed vulnerability scans.

    Credentialed scans use valid login credentials for a deeper, insider view of misconfigurations and missing patches. Non-credentialed scans probe from an outsider's perspective without authentication, finding externally visible issues.

  15. What do CVE and CVSS stand for in vulnerability management?

    CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures) is a standardized identifier for a publicly known vulnerability. CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) is a 0-10 score rating a vulnerability's severity.

  16. What is a false positive versus a false negative in scanning?

    A false positive is when a scan reports a vulnerability that does not actually exist. A false negative is when a scan fails to detect a real, existing vulnerability.

  17. Define a zero-day vulnerability.

    A vulnerability that is unknown to the vendor and has no available patch, leaving 'zero days' for defenders to prepare before it can be exploited.

  18. List common vulnerability remediation/response options.

    Patching/remediation, insurance (transfer), segmentation/isolation, applying compensating controls, exception/exemption (accept risk), and validation of remediation via rescanning and audit.

  19. What is the difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption?

    Symmetric encryption uses a single shared secret key for both encryption and decryption (fast, e.g. AES). Asymmetric encryption uses a mathematically related public/private key pair (slower, e.g. RSA), where one key encrypts and the other decrypts.

  20. Name common symmetric encryption algorithms and a typical AES key size.

    AES, 3DES, and (legacy) DES/Blowfish/RC4. AES supports 128-, 192-, and 256-bit keys; AES-256 is a common strong choice.

  21. What is a hash function and what property must it have?

    A one-way function that converts arbitrary input into a fixed-length digest. It must be deterministic, irreversible (preimage resistant), and collision resistant (hard to find two inputs with the same hash). Examples: SHA-256, SHA-3.

  22. What is the difference between encryption and hashing?

    Encryption is reversible (with a key) and protects confidentiality. Hashing is one-way (irreversible) and verifies integrity; it does not protect confidentiality.

  23. What is a salt and why is it used with password hashes?

    A salt is a random value added to a password before hashing so identical passwords produce different hashes. It defeats precomputed rainbow-table attacks and makes brute-forcing harder.

  24. What is key stretching?

    Deliberately making a key/password derivation slow and computationally expensive (e.g. PBKDF2, bcrypt, scrypt, Argon2) to resist brute-force and dictionary attacks.

  25. What is Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)?

    A framework of hardware, software, policies, and procedures for creating, managing, distributing, and revoking digital certificates and public/private key pairs to enable trusted secure communication.

  26. What is the role of a Certificate Authority (CA) and Registration Authority (RA)?

    A CA issues, signs, and vouches for digital certificates, binding a public key to an identity. An RA verifies the requester's identity and forwards approved requests to the CA, but does not issue certificates itself.

  27. What is a Certificate Revocation List (CRL) versus OCSP?

    A CRL is a published list of revoked certificates that clients download and check. OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol) provides real-time, on-demand certificate status; OCSP stapling lets the server present a signed status to reduce client lookups.

  28. What is certificate chaining (chain of trust)?

    The hierarchy linking an end-entity certificate through one or more intermediate CA certificates up to a trusted root CA. Each certificate is signed by the one above it, establishing trust to the root.

  29. What is the difference between a wildcard certificate and a SAN certificate?

    A wildcard certificate (e.g. *.example.com) secures unlimited subdomains of a single domain. A SAN (Subject Alternative Name) certificate secures multiple specified distinct domain names in one certificate.

  30. What is full-disk encryption (FDE) and what hardware component commonly supports it?

    FDE encrypts an entire storage volume so data is unreadable without authentication. A TPM (Trusted Platform Module) securely stores the encryption keys and supports it; BitLocker is a common implementation.

  31. What is the difference between data at rest, data in transit, and data in use, and how is each protected?

    Data at rest is stored data (protect with FDE/file encryption); data in transit moves across networks (protect with TLS/IPsec/VPN); data in use is actively processed in memory (protect with secure enclaves, access controls, and homomorphic encryption).

  32. What is a digital signature and what does it provide?

    A digital signature is created by hashing a message and encrypting the hash with the sender's private key. The recipient verifies it with the sender's public key, providing integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation (but not confidentiality).

  33. What is the difference between steganography, tokenization, and data masking?

    Steganography hides data within other media (e.g. an image). Tokenization replaces sensitive data with a non-sensitive token mapped in a secure vault. Data masking obscures data (e.g. showing only last 4 digits) so the original is not exposed.

  34. What is perfect forward secrecy (PFS)?

    A property where unique ephemeral session keys are generated per session so that compromise of a long-term private key does not allow decryption of past recorded sessions.

  35. What is a blockchain and how does it relate to cryptography?

    A blockchain is a distributed, append-only ledger where each block contains a cryptographic hash of the previous block, creating an immutable, tamper-evident chain that provides integrity and a public, verifiable record.

  36. What is key escrow?

    A practice where a copy of a cryptographic key is held by a trusted third party so it can be recovered (e.g. for legal access or data recovery) if the original key is lost or required.

CompTIA A+ / Network+ / Security+ CompTIA Security+: Threats, Attacks & Cryptography (SY0-701) FAQ

What is in the CompTIA A+ / Network+ / Security+ CompTIA Security+: Threats, Attacks & Cryptography (SY0-701) syllabus?

CompTIA A+ / Network+ / Security+ CompTIA Security+: Threats, Attacks & Cryptography (SY0-701) is split into 3 chapters: General Security Concepts, Threats, Vulnerabilities and Mitigations and Cryptographic Solutions. Together they contain 12 topics and 26 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in CompTIA A+ / Network+ / Security+ CompTIA Security+: Threats, Attacks & Cryptography (SY0-701)?

3 chapters, containing 12 topics and 26 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Threats, Vulnerabilities and Mitigations, with 5 topics.

Are there flashcards for CompTIA A+ / Network+ / Security+ CompTIA Security+: Threats, Attacks & Cryptography (SY0-701)?

Yes — a 56-card CompTIA Security+: Threats, Attacks & Cryptography (SY0-701) deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.