🇮🇳 CMA (Cost & Management Accountancy) · subject

CMA (Cost & Management Accountancy) Final: Strategic Financial and Corporate Reporting Syllabus

The Final: Strategic Financial and Corporate Reporting syllabus for CMA (Cost & Management Accountancy) in full: 4 chapters, 15 topics and 12 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 68 Final: Strategic Financial and Corporate Reporting flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
15Topics
12Sub-topics
68Flashcards

Final: Strategic Financial and Corporate Reporting syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS)

    3 topics
    • Framework and Presentation under Ind AS
      • Ind AS 1 and Ind AS 7
      • Conceptual framework for financial reporting
    • Recognition and Measurement Standards
      • Ind AS 115 revenue; Ind AS 116 leases
      • Ind AS 109 financial instruments
    • Business Combinations and Consolidation
      • Ind AS 103, 110, 28 and 111
      • Consolidated financial statements
  2. Corporate Financial Reporting

    4 topics
    • Accounting for Share-based Payments
    • Valuation of Goodwill and Shares
    • Integrated and Sustainability Reporting
      • ESG and triple bottom line
    • Government Accounting in India
  3. Strategic Financial Management

    4 topics
    • Investment Decisions and Capital Budgeting
      • Risk analysis and real options
      • Capital rationing
    • Cost of Capital and Capital Structure
    • Working Capital Management
    • Security Analysis and Portfolio Management
      • CAPM and portfolio theory
  4. Risk Management and Derivatives

    4 topics
    • Financial Risk Management Framework
    • Derivatives: Futures, Options and Swaps
      • Hedging strategies
      • Option valuation models
    • Foreign Exchange Risk Management
    • Corporate Restructuring: Mergers and Acquisitions

CMA (Cost & Management Accountancy) Final: Strategic Financial and Corporate Reporting flashcards — 68 questions with answers

  1. Under Ind AS 1, what are the two bases of preparation an entity must follow, and what is the default presentation of the statement of financial position regarding current/non-current classification?

    Financial statements are prepared on the accrual basis of accounting and the going concern basis. By default, an entity presents assets and liabilities classified as current and non-current; a liquidity-based presentation is used only when it provides reliable and more relevant information.

  2. Per Ind AS 1, what are the four conditions that classify an asset as 'current'?

    An asset is current if: (1) it is expected to be realised, sold or consumed in the normal operating cycle; (2) it is held primarily for trading; (3) it is expected to be realised within 12 months of the reporting period; or (4) it is cash or a cash equivalent (unless restricted from exchange for at least 12 months). All other assets are non-current.

  3. Under Ind AS 7, how are the three classes of cash flows defined?

    Operating activities are the principal revenue-producing activities and other activities not investing or financing. Investing activities are the acquisition and disposal of long-term assets and other investments not in cash equivalents. Financing activities change the size and composition of contributed equity and borrowings of the entity.

  4. Under Ind AS 7, contrast the direct and indirect methods of presenting cash flows from operating activities.

    The direct method discloses major classes of gross cash receipts and payments. The indirect method starts with profit or loss and adjusts for non-cash items (e.g. depreciation), deferrals/accruals, and items of investing or financing cash flow. Ind AS 7 encourages the direct method but permits both.

  5. Under Ind AS 7, how may interest and dividends paid and received be classified?

    For a non-financial entity, interest and dividends received may be classified as investing or operating, and interest and dividends paid may be classified as financing or operating, applied consistently. For financial institutions interest paid/received and dividends received are usually operating.

  6. According to the Conceptual Framework, what are the two fundamental qualitative characteristics of useful financial information?

    Relevance (information capable of making a difference in decisions, comprising predictive value, confirmatory value and materiality) and faithful representation (complete, neutral and free from error).

  7. According to the Conceptual Framework, what are the four enhancing qualitative characteristics?

    Comparability, verifiability, timeliness and understandability. They enhance the usefulness of information that is already relevant and faithfully represented but cannot make non-useful information useful.

  8. State the Conceptual Framework definitions of an asset and a liability (2018 revised framework).

    An asset is a present economic resource controlled by the entity as a result of past events, where an economic resource is a right that has the potential to produce economic benefits. A liability is a present obligation of the entity to transfer an economic resource as a result of past events.

  9. Under the Conceptual Framework, what are the recognition criteria for an element?

    An item is recognised if it meets the definition of an element (asset, liability, equity, income, expense) and recognition provides users with relevant information and a faithful representation, considering the benefits exceeding the costs (the cost constraint).

  10. List the measurement bases identified in the Conceptual Framework.

    Historical cost and current value. Current value comprises fair value, value in use (for assets) / fulfilment value (for liabilities), and current cost.

  11. State the five-step revenue recognition model of Ind AS 115.

    Step 1: Identify the contract(s) with a customer. Step 2: Identify the performance obligations. Step 3: Determine the transaction price. Step 4: Allocate the transaction price to the performance obligations. Step 5: Recognise revenue when (or as) a performance obligation is satisfied.

  12. Under Ind AS 115, what three criteria indicate that a performance obligation is satisfied over time (rather than at a point in time)?

    (1) The customer simultaneously receives and consumes the benefits as the entity performs; (2) the entity's performance creates or enhances an asset the customer controls; or (3) performance creates an asset with no alternative use to the entity and the entity has an enforceable right to payment for performance completed to date.

  13. Under Ind AS 115, how is variable consideration measured and what constraint applies?

    Variable consideration is estimated using either the expected value (probability-weighted) or the most likely amount, whichever better predicts the entitlement. It is included in the transaction price only to the extent it is highly probable that a significant revenue reversal will not occur (the constraint).

  14. Under Ind AS 116, what is the single recognition model for a lessee and the two recognised items at commencement?

    A lessee recognises almost all leases on-balance-sheet: a right-of-use (ROU) asset and a lease liability. The lease liability is measured at the present value of lease payments not yet paid, discounted at the interest rate implicit in the lease (or the lessee's incremental borrowing rate).

  15. Under Ind AS 116, what two recognition exemptions are available to a lessee?

    Short-term leases (lease term of 12 months or less with no purchase option) and leases of low-value assets. For these the lessee may recognise payments as an expense on a straight-line or other systematic basis instead of recognising an ROU asset and liability.

  16. Under Ind AS 116, how does a lessor classify and account for leases?

    A lessor classifies each lease as a finance lease (transfers substantially all risks and rewards of ownership) or an operating lease. For a finance lease the lessor derecognises the asset and recognises a net investment in the lease (receivable); for an operating lease it keeps the asset and recognises lease income, typically straight-line.

  17. Under Ind AS 116, write the formula for the initial cost of a right-of-use asset.

    $$\text{ROU asset} = \text{Initial lease liability} + \text{Lease payments at/before commencement} - \text{Lease incentives received} + \text{Initial direct costs} + \text{Estimated dismantling/restoration costs}$$

  18. Under Ind AS 109, what are the three classification categories for financial assets and the tests that drive them?

    Amortised cost, Fair Value through Other Comprehensive Income (FVOCI), and Fair Value through Profit or Loss (FVTPL). Classification depends on the entity's business model for managing the assets and the contractual cash flow characteristics (the SPPI test — solely payments of principal and interest).

  19. Under Ind AS 109, describe the SPPI test.

    The 'solely payments of principal and interest' test assesses whether contractual cash flows are solely payments of principal and interest on the principal outstanding. Interest comprises consideration for time value of money, credit risk, other basic lending risks and a profit margin. If cash flows fail SPPI, the asset is measured at FVTPL.

  20. Under Ind AS 109, what impairment model applies to financial assets and what are its three stages?

    The Expected Credit Loss (ECL) model. Stage 1: 12-month ECL for performing assets (no significant increase in credit risk). Stage 2: lifetime ECL where credit risk has increased significantly but not credit-impaired. Stage 3: lifetime ECL for credit-impaired assets, with interest on the net carrying amount.

Show the other 48 Final: Strategic Financial and Corporate Reporting flashcards
  1. Under Ind AS 109, what are the three types of hedging relationships?

    Fair value hedge (hedges exposure to changes in fair value of a recognised asset/liability or firm commitment), cash flow hedge (hedges variability in cash flows of a recognised item or highly probable forecast transaction), and hedge of a net investment in a foreign operation.

  2. Under Ind AS 103, what method is required for accounting for business combinations and what are its steps?

    The acquisition method. Steps: (1) identify the acquirer; (2) determine the acquisition date; (3) recognise and measure the identifiable assets acquired, liabilities assumed and any non-controlling interest; (4) recognise and measure goodwill or a gain from a bargain purchase.

  3. Under Ind AS 103, write the formula for goodwill arising on a business combination.

    $$\text{Goodwill} = (\text{Consideration transferred} + \text{NCI} + \text{Fair value of previously held interest}) - \text{Fair value of identifiable net assets acquired}$$

  4. Under Ind AS 103, what are the two permitted methods of measuring non-controlling interest (NCI) at acquisition?

    (1) At fair value (the 'full goodwill' method), or (2) at the NCI's proportionate share of the acquiree's identifiable net assets (the 'partial goodwill' method). The choice is made on a transaction-by-transaction basis.

  5. Under Ind AS 103, how is a bargain purchase (negative goodwill) treated?

    After reassessing whether all assets and liabilities have been correctly identified and measured, any remaining excess of the fair value of net identifiable assets over the consideration is recognised as a gain in profit or loss (in OCI/capital reserve under Ind AS 103 Indian carve-out) on the acquisition date.

  6. Under Ind AS 110, what is the single definition of control comprising three elements?

    An investor controls an investee when it is exposed, or has rights, to variable returns from its involvement with the investee, and has the ability to affect those returns through its power over the investee. The three elements are: power, exposure to variable returns, and the link (ability to use power to affect returns).

  7. Under Ind AS 28, what is significant influence and what is the accounting method for associates?

    Significant influence is the power to participate in the financial and operating policy decisions of the investee but not control or joint control, presumed with 20% to 50% of voting power. Associates (and joint ventures) are accounted for using the equity method.

  8. Describe the mechanics of the equity method under Ind AS 28.

    The investment is initially recognised at cost and subsequently adjusted for the investor's share of post-acquisition profit or loss (in P&L) and OCI (in OCI). Dividends received reduce the carrying amount. The carrying amount is tested for impairment under Ind AS 36/109.

  9. Under Ind AS 111, distinguish a joint operation from a joint venture.

    In a joint operation, the parties (joint operators) have rights to the assets and obligations for the liabilities, and each recognises its share of assets, liabilities, revenue and expenses. In a joint venture, the parties (joint venturers) have rights to the net assets and use the equity method (Ind AS 28).

  10. In consolidated financial statements, why and how is the parent's investment account and subsidiary's equity eliminated?

    To avoid double counting, the cost of the parent's investment is eliminated against the parent's share of the subsidiary's equity at acquisition; the difference is recognised as goodwill or a bargain-purchase gain. Inter-company balances, transactions, and unrealised profits are also eliminated in full.

  11. In consolidation, how are unrealised profits on intra-group inventory transactions eliminated?

    Unrealised profit in closing inventory still held within the group is eliminated by reducing consolidated inventory and the seller's profit. If the seller is the subsidiary (upstream sale), the unrealised profit is apportioned between the parent and NCI in proportion to their interest.

  12. How is non-controlling interest presented and measured in the consolidated balance sheet at the reporting date?

    NCI is presented within equity, separately from owners of the parent. It equals NCI at acquisition plus the NCI's share of post-acquisition changes in the subsidiary's equity (profits, OCI, dividends), and reflects the chosen measurement basis (fair value or proportionate net assets) under Ind AS 103.

  13. Under Ind AS 102, what are the three types of share-based payment transactions?

    (1) Equity-settled (entity receives goods/services for its own equity instruments), (2) cash-settled (entity incurs a liability based on the value of its equity instruments), and (3) transactions with a choice of settlement (cash or equity) by either party.

  14. Under Ind AS 102, how is an equity-settled share-based payment to employees measured and recognised?

    Measured at the fair value of the equity instruments granted at the grant date, which is not subsequently remeasured. The cost is recognised as an expense (with a corresponding increase in equity) over the vesting period, adjusting for the number expected to vest based on non-market vesting conditions.

  15. Under Ind AS 102, contrast the treatment of market and non-market vesting conditions.

    Market conditions (e.g. a target share price) and non-vesting conditions are incorporated into the grant-date fair value and not trued-up. Non-market vesting conditions (service and non-market performance) are excluded from fair value but reflected by adjusting the number of instruments expected to vest.

  16. List the main methods of valuing goodwill of a business.

    (1) Average profit method (goodwill = average profit × number of years' purchase); (2) Super profit method (goodwill = super profit × number of years' purchase); (3) Capitalisation of average profit method; (4) Capitalisation of super profit method; (5) Annuity method (present value of super profits).

  17. Define super profit and write the super-profit goodwill formula.

    Super profit is the excess of actual/average maintainable profit over the normal profit a business would earn. $$\text{Super profit} = \text{Average profit} - (\text{Capital employed} \times \text{Normal rate of return})$$ $$\text{Goodwill} = \text{Super profit} \times \text{Number of years' purchase}$$

  18. Write the capitalisation-of-super-profit and annuity methods for goodwill.

    Capitalisation of super profit: $$\text{Goodwill} = \frac{\text{Super profit}}{\text{Normal rate of return}}$$ Annuity method: $$\text{Goodwill} = \text{Super profit} \times \text{Annuity factor at the normal rate for } n \text{ years}$$

  19. State the main methods of valuation of shares and the intrinsic (net assets) value formula.

    Methods: net assets (intrinsic) value, yield (earnings/dividend) value, and fair value (average of the two). $$\text{Intrinsic value per equity share} = \frac{\text{Net assets available to equity shareholders}}{\text{Number of equity shares}}$$

  20. Write the yield (earning capacity) method and the fair value method for share valuation.

    $$\text{Value per share (yield)} = \frac{\text{Expected rate of return}}{\text{Normal rate of return}} \times \text{Paid-up value}$$ $$\text{Fair value} = \frac{\text{Intrinsic value} + \text{Yield value}}{2}$$

  21. What is Integrated Reporting <IR> and what are the six capitals in the IIRC framework?

    Integrated Reporting communicates how an organisation's strategy, governance, performance and prospects create value over time. The six capitals are: financial, manufactured, intellectual, human, social and relationship, and natural capital.

  22. What is the 'triple bottom line' (TBL) concept in sustainability reporting?

    The triple bottom line measures performance across three dimensions — People (social), Planet (environmental) and Profit (economic), sometimes called the 3 Ps. It argues organisations should account for social and environmental impacts alongside financial results.

  23. What do the three letters in 'ESG' stand for, with an example factor under each?

    Environmental (e.g. carbon emissions, energy and water use, waste), Social (e.g. labour practices, human rights, community relations, diversity), and Governance (e.g. board structure, executive pay, business ethics, transparency).

  24. What is sustainability reporting and which leading framework is most widely used for it?

    Sustainability reporting is the disclosure of an organisation's economic, environmental, social and governance impacts and performance. The most widely used framework is the GRI (Global Reporting Initiative) Standards; in India the SEBI BRSR (Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report) is mandated for top listed companies.

  25. What is the basis of accounting traditionally followed in Government Accounting in India, and how does it differ from commercial accounting?

    Government accounting in India is traditionally maintained on a cash basis (recording actual receipts and payments), whereas commercial accounting uses the accrual basis. Government accounts emphasise legislative control and appropriation rather than profit determination.

  26. In Indian Government Accounting, what are the three parts of the Government Account (Consolidated Fund structure)?

    The Government Account is kept in three parts: (1) Consolidated Fund of India, (2) Contingency Fund of India, and (3) Public Account of India. Each is further divided into Revenue, Capital, and Debt/Loan sections.

  27. Write the formulas for Net Present Value (NPV) and the decision rule for capital budgeting.

    $$NPV = \sum_{t=1}^{n} \frac{C_t}{(1+r)^{t}} - C_0$$ where $C_t$ is the net cash flow in period $t$, $r$ the discount rate and $C_0$ the initial outlay. Decision rule: accept the project if $NPV > 0$; for mutually exclusive projects choose the highest positive NPV.

  28. Define the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) and its decision rule, including the IRR equation.

    IRR is the discount rate that makes NPV zero: $$\sum_{t=1}^{n} \frac{C_t}{(1+IRR)^{t}} - C_0 = 0$$ Decision rule: accept the project if $IRR >$ the cost of capital (hurdle rate); for independent projects accept all such projects.

  29. Write the formula for the Profitability Index (PI) and its decision rule.

    $$PI = \frac{\text{Present value of future cash inflows}}{\text{Initial investment}}$$ Decision rule: accept the project if $PI > 1$ (equivalent to $NPV > 0$). PI is useful for ranking projects under capital rationing.

  30. Write the discounted payback period concept and contrast it with simple payback.

    Simple payback is the time to recover the initial outlay from undiscounted cash flows. Discounted payback uses the present values of cash flows: it is the time $t$ at which $$\sum_{k=1}^{t} \frac{C_k}{(1+r)^{k}} = C_0$$ It accounts for the time value of money but still ignores cash flows after the cutoff.

  31. In risk analysis of investments, what is sensitivity analysis and how does it differ from scenario analysis?

    Sensitivity analysis changes one input variable at a time (e.g. sales, cost, discount rate) to see its effect on NPV, identifying the most critical variables. Scenario analysis changes several variables together to form consistent scenarios (e.g. best, base, worst case) and evaluates NPV under each.

  32. How is risk incorporated into capital budgeting through the risk-adjusted discount rate (RADR) and certainty-equivalent methods?

    RADR adds a risk premium to the risk-free rate so riskier projects are discounted at a higher rate, reducing NPV. The certainty-equivalent method converts risky cash flows into certain equivalents using factors $\alpha_t$ (between 0 and 1) and discounts them at the risk-free rate: $$NPV = \sum_{t=1}^{n} \frac{\alpha_t C_t}{(1+r_f)^{t}} - C_0$$

  33. What is a 'real option' in capital budgeting, and name the main types.

    A real option is the right, but not the obligation, to take a future action (e.g. expand, defer, abandon) regarding a real (physical) investment, giving managerial flexibility that traditional NPV ignores. Main types: option to expand (growth), option to delay/defer, option to abandon, and option to switch inputs/outputs.

  34. What is capital rationing, and distinguish hard from soft capital rationing?

    Capital rationing is the situation where limited capital forces a firm to select among acceptable (positive-NPV) projects. Hard rationing is imposed externally by capital markets (inability to raise funds); soft rationing is imposed internally by management policy (e.g. self-imposed budget limits).

  35. Under single-period capital rationing with divisible projects, what ranking criterion maximises shareholder wealth?

    Rank projects by the Profitability Index (PV of inflows per rupee of investment) and select in descending PI order until the capital budget is exhausted. With indivisible projects, instead evaluate feasible combinations to find the set giving the highest total NPV within the constraint.

  36. Write the formulas for the cost of equity using (a) the dividend growth (Gordon) model and (b) the CAPM.

    Dividend growth model: $$K_e = \frac{D_1}{P_0} + g$$ where $D_1$ is next year's dividend, $P_0$ the current price and $g$ the growth rate. CAPM: $$K_e = R_f + \beta (R_m - R_f)$$ where $R_f$ is the risk-free rate, $\beta$ the systematic risk and $(R_m - R_f)$ the market risk premium.

  37. Write the formula for the after-tax cost of debt.

    $$K_d = i \,(1 - t)$$ where $i$ is the pre-tax interest (coupon/yield) rate and $t$ the marginal tax rate. For a redeemable bond an approximate yield is $$K_d = \frac{I(1-t) + \frac{(RV - NP)}{n}}{\frac{RV + NP}{2}}$$ where $I$ is interest, $RV$ redemption value, $NP$ net proceeds and $n$ years to maturity.

  38. Write the formula for the Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC).

    $$WACC = K_e \frac{E}{V} + K_d (1-t)\frac{D}{V} + K_p \frac{P}{V}$$ where $E$, $D$, $P$ are the market values of equity, debt and preference capital, $V = E + D + P$, and $K_e$, $K_d$, $K_p$ are their respective costs. Weights should ideally be based on market values.

  39. State the key proposition of the Net Income (NI) approach to capital structure.

    Under the NI approach, the cost of debt and cost of equity are assumed constant, so increasing the proportion of (cheaper) debt lowers the overall WACC and raises total firm value. Hence an optimal capital structure is reached at maximum debt (100% debt in the extreme).

  40. State Modigliani–Miller Proposition I and II in a world with no taxes.

    Proposition I: the value of a firm is independent of its capital structure — $V_L = V_U$ — so WACC is constant. Proposition II: the cost of equity rises linearly with the debt-equity ratio: $$K_e = K_0 + (K_0 - K_d)\frac{D}{E}$$ where $K_0$ is the unlevered cost of capital, exactly offsetting the benefit of cheaper debt.

  41. Under MM with corporate taxes, write the value of a levered firm.

    $$V_L = V_U + t \cdot D$$ where $V_U$ is the value of the unlevered firm, $t$ the corporate tax rate and $D$ the market value of debt. The term $t \cdot D$ is the present value of the interest tax shield, implying value increases with leverage.

  42. Define operating, financial and combined leverage with their formulas.

    Degree of operating leverage: $$DOL = \frac{\text{Contribution}}{EBIT}$$ Degree of financial leverage: $$DFL = \frac{EBIT}{EBIT - I}$$ Degree of combined leverage: $$DCL = DOL \times DFL = \frac{\text{Contribution}}{EBIT - I}$$ measuring the sensitivity of EPS to a change in sales.

  43. What is the trade-off theory of capital structure?

    The trade-off theory states that a firm chooses its optimal capital structure by balancing the tax-shield benefits of debt against the costs of financial distress and bankruptcy (and agency costs). The optimal debt level is where the marginal benefit of the tax shield equals the marginal cost of distress, maximising firm value.

  44. Under Ind AS 1, what is the minimum set of components of a complete set of financial statements?

    (1) A balance sheet (statement of financial position); (2) a statement of profit and loss (including OCI); (3) a statement of changes in equity; (4) a statement of cash flows; (5) notes comprising significant accounting policies and other explanatory information; and a balance sheet at the beginning of the earliest comparative period when a retrospective restatement occurs.

  45. Under Ind AS 115, how are contract assets, contract liabilities and receivables distinguished?

    A receivable is an unconditional right to consideration (only the passage of time is required). A contract asset is a right to consideration conditional on something other than time (e.g. future performance). A contract liability arises when the customer pays (or payment is due) before the entity transfers the goods/services.

  46. Under Ind AS 109, how are equity investments not held for trading accounted for, and what is unusual about the OCI on disposal?

    On initial recognition an entity may make an irrevocable election to present subsequent fair value changes of such equity investments in OCI (FVOCI). Dividends go to profit or loss, but the gains/losses accumulated in OCI are never reclassified (recycled) to profit or loss on disposal — they may only be transferred within equity.

  47. In step acquisitions under Ind AS 103, how is a previously held equity interest treated when control is obtained?

    When control is achieved in stages, the acquirer remeasures its previously held equity interest in the acquiree at its acquisition-date fair value and recognises any resulting gain or loss in profit or loss. This remeasured fair value is included in the consideration when computing goodwill.

  48. In consolidation, how is a change in a parent's ownership interest in a subsidiary that does not result in loss of control accounted for?

    It is accounted for as an equity transaction (transaction between owners). No gain or loss is recognised in profit or loss and goodwill is not remeasured; the carrying amount of NCI is adjusted and any difference between the adjustment and the fair value of consideration is recognised directly in equity attributable to the parent.

CMA (Cost & Management Accountancy) Final: Strategic Financial and Corporate Reporting FAQ

What is in the CMA (Cost & Management Accountancy) Final: Strategic Financial and Corporate Reporting syllabus?

CMA (Cost & Management Accountancy) Final: Strategic Financial and Corporate Reporting is split into 4 chapters: Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS), Corporate Financial Reporting, Strategic Financial Management and Risk Management and Derivatives. Together they contain 15 topics and 12 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in CMA (Cost & Management Accountancy) Final: Strategic Financial and Corporate Reporting?

4 chapters, containing 15 topics and 12 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Corporate Financial Reporting, with 4 topics.

Are there flashcards for CMA (Cost & Management Accountancy) Final: Strategic Financial and Corporate Reporting?

Yes — a 68-card Final: Strategic Financial and Corporate Reporting deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.