🌍 Cloud Computing · subject
Cloud Computing Cloud Security and Compliance Syllabus
The Cloud Security and Compliance syllabus for Cloud Computing in full: 5 chapters and 20 topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Cloud Security and Compliance flashcards with answers.
Cloud Security and Compliance syllabus: all 5 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Cloud Security Fundamentals
4 topics- Shared Responsibility Model
- Defense in Depth
- Common Cloud Threats
- CIA Triad in the Cloud
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Data Protection and Encryption
4 topics- Encryption at Rest and in Transit
- Key Management Services (KMS)
- Secrets Management
- Data Classification and Loss Prevention
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Network Security
4 topics- Security Groups and Network ACLs
- Web Application Firewalls (WAF)
- DDoS Protection
- Zero Trust Networking
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Identity Security and Governance
4 topics- Privileged Access Management
- Service Accounts and Workload Identity
- Organization Policies and Guardrails
- Audit Trails and CloudTrail
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Compliance and Risk Management
4 topics- Regulatory Frameworks
- Governance, Risk, and Compliance (GRC)
- Security Posture Management
- Incident Response in the Cloud
Cloud Computing Cloud Security and Compliance flashcards — 50 questions with answers
What is the Shared Responsibility Model in cloud computing?
A security framework dividing obligations between the cloud provider and the customer. The provider secures the cloud (physical infrastructure, hardware, hypervisor, managed services), while the customer secures what they put in the cloud (data, identities, configurations, access).
How does responsibility shift across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS service models?
The higher up the stack, the less the customer manages. In IaaS the customer secures OS, runtime, apps, and data; in PaaS the provider also manages OS/runtime, leaving apps and data to the customer; in SaaS the provider manages nearly everything and the customer mainly secures data and access.
In the Shared Responsibility Model, who is always responsible for data classification, IAM, and client-side encryption?
The customer is always responsible for these regardless of service model. Data, identity/access management, and endpoint/client-side protection never transfer to the provider.
What is Defense in Depth?
A layered security strategy that applies multiple independent, overlapping controls (physical, network, host, application, data, identity) so that if one layer fails, others still protect the asset. No single control is a point of total failure.
Name typical layers in a cloud Defense-in-Depth architecture.
Physical/data-center security, network perimeter (firewalls, NACLs, WAF, DDoS), host/compute hardening, application security, identity and access controls, and data protection (encryption). Each layer is independently enforced.
What is the CIA Triad and what does each element mean?
The three core goals of information security: Confidentiality (data is accessible only to authorized parties), Integrity (data is accurate and unaltered), and Availability (data and services are accessible when needed).
Which cloud controls primarily support each leg of the CIA Triad?
Confidentiality: encryption, IAM, access controls. Integrity: hashing, digital signatures, checksums, versioning. Availability: redundancy, backups, DDoS protection, auto-scaling, multi-AZ/region deployment.
List common cloud-specific threats a student should recognize.
Misconfiguration (e.g., public storage buckets), account/credential hijacking, insecure APIs, insider threats, data breaches, denial-of-service (DDoS), insufficient IAM, shadow IT, and supply-chain compromise.
What is the single most common cause of cloud data breaches?
Misconfiguration, especially overly permissive access such as publicly exposed object storage buckets, open security groups, or excessive IAM permissions, rather than provider infrastructure failure.
What is the difference between encryption at rest and encryption in transit?
Encryption at rest protects stored data (disks, databases, object storage) from unauthorized access to the storage medium. Encryption in transit protects data moving over networks from interception, typically via TLS.
Which protocol and version are standard for encryption in transit in the cloud?
Transport Layer Security (TLS), with TLS 1.2 or 1.3 recommended. TLS provides confidentiality, integrity, and server (optionally mutual) authentication for data on the wire.
What symmetric algorithm and key size are the standard for cloud encryption at rest?
AES (Advanced Encryption Standard), typically AES-256 in GCM mode. It is a symmetric cipher, meaning the same key encrypts and decrypts the data.
What is envelope encryption?
A technique where data is encrypted with a data encryption key (DEK), and the DEK is itself encrypted with a key encryption key (KEK) held in a KMS. Only the wrapped DEK is stored alongside the data, and the KEK never leaves the KMS.
What is a Key Management Service (KMS)?
A managed service that creates, stores, rotates, and controls access to cryptographic keys. It centralizes key lifecycle management and enforces access policies, so applications request cryptographic operations without handling raw key material directly.
Compare a provider-managed key with a customer-managed key (CMK) in KMS.
Provider-managed keys are automatically created and rotated by the cloud provider with minimal customer control. Customer-managed keys (CMKs) are created and governed by the customer, who controls key policies, rotation schedule, and can disable or delete them.
What does BYOK (Bring Your Own Key) mean and how does it differ from HYOK?
BYOK lets a customer import their own key material into the provider's KMS. HYOK (Hold Your Own Key) keeps the key entirely in the customer's own key store/HSM so the provider never possesses it, giving maximum control at the cost of complexity.
What is an HSM and why is it used in key management?
A Hardware Security Module is a tamper-resistant physical device that generates, stores, and performs operations with cryptographic keys. Keys never leave the HSM in plaintext, providing strong protection and often FIPS 140-2/140-3 compliance.
What is Secrets Management and how does it differ from key management?
Secrets management securely stores and controls access to credentials such as passwords, API keys, database strings, and tokens. Key management focuses specifically on cryptographic keys, while secrets management covers a broader set of sensitive configuration values.
Why should secrets never be hard-coded in source code or committed to repositories?
Committed secrets are exposed to anyone with repository access, persist in git history even after deletion, and are a leading cause of breaches. Secrets should be stored in a secrets manager and injected at runtime, with rotation enabled.
What is Data Classification?
The process of categorizing data by sensitivity and business impact (e.g., Public, Internal, Confidential, Restricted) so that appropriate security controls, handling rules, and access policies can be applied consistently.
Show the other 30 Cloud Security and Compliance flashcards
What is Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?
A set of tools and policies that detect and prevent unauthorized access, exfiltration, or exposure of sensitive data. DLP scans content (e.g., for credit card or PII patterns) in storage, in transit, and at endpoints, blocking or alerting on violations.
What is the difference between a Security Group and a Network ACL (NACL)?
Security groups are stateful firewalls attached to instances/resources; return traffic is automatically allowed. NACLs are stateless firewalls applied at the subnet level; you must explicitly allow both inbound and outbound traffic.
Do security groups support deny rules? How is traffic evaluated?
Security groups support only allow rules (implicit deny for anything not allowed) and are evaluated as a whole. NACLs support both allow and deny rules and are evaluated in numbered order, using the first matching rule.
What is a Web Application Firewall (WAF)?
A security control that filters, monitors, and blocks HTTP/HTTPS traffic to and from a web application at Layer 7. It protects against application-layer attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and other OWASP Top 10 threats.
At which OSI layer does a WAF operate, and how does that differ from a network firewall?
A WAF operates at Layer 7 (application), inspecting HTTP payloads and application semantics. A traditional network firewall operates at Layers 3-4 (network/transport), filtering by IP address, port, and protocol.
What is DDoS protection and what attack types does it defend against?
DDoS protection detects and mitigates Distributed Denial-of-Service attacks that flood a target to exhaust resources. It defends against volumetric (Layer 3/4 bandwidth floods), protocol (e.g., SYN floods), and application-layer (Layer 7) attacks.
Distinguish volumetric, protocol, and application-layer DDoS attacks.
Volumetric attacks saturate bandwidth (e.g., UDP/amplification floods, measured in Gbps/pps). Protocol attacks exhaust connection-state resources (e.g., SYN floods). Application-layer attacks (Layer 7) send seemingly legitimate requests to overwhelm app resources (e.g., HTTP floods).
What is Zero Trust Networking?
A security model based on 'never trust, always verify.' No user, device, or network location is trusted by default; every request is authenticated, authorized, and continuously validated regardless of whether it originates inside or outside the network perimeter.
What are the core principles of Zero Trust?
Verify explicitly (authenticate and authorize on every request), use least-privilege access (just-enough, just-in-time), and assume breach (segment, encrypt end-to-end, and continuously monitor). Trust is never granted implicitly by network location.
How does Zero Trust differ from the traditional perimeter (castle-and-moat) model?
The perimeter model trusts everything inside the network once past the firewall. Zero Trust removes implicit trust entirely, treating the internal network as hostile and requiring per-request verification and micro-segmentation.
What is the Principle of Least Privilege?
Granting each user, service, or process only the minimum permissions needed to perform its function, and no more. It limits the blast radius of compromised credentials and reduces the attack surface.
What is Privileged Access Management (PAM)?
A discipline and set of tools for controlling, monitoring, and securing accounts with elevated permissions (admins, root). PAM enforces least privilege, just-in-time access, credential vaulting, session recording, and approval workflows for privileged operations.
What is Just-in-Time (JIT) privileged access?
A model where elevated permissions are granted only for a limited time window when needed and automatically revoked afterward, rather than standing (always-on) access. It shrinks the window of exposure for privileged credentials.
What is a Service Account?
A non-human identity used by an application, VM, or workload to authenticate and access cloud resources programmatically. It has its own credentials and IAM permissions rather than belonging to a person.
What is Workload Identity and what problem does it solve?
A mechanism that lets workloads (containers, pods, functions) assume cloud identities without long-lived static credentials, typically via federated tokens. It eliminates the risk of storing and rotating service-account keys by using short-lived, automatically issued credentials.
Why are long-lived service account keys a security risk, and what is the preferred alternative?
Static keys can be leaked, rarely rotated, and grant standing access if stolen. The preferred alternative is short-lived credentials via workload identity federation or instance/attached roles that auto-rotate and require no stored secret.
What are Organization Policies (guardrails) in cloud governance?
Centrally enforced, preventive constraints applied across an organization's accounts/projects that restrict what configurations or actions are allowed (e.g., block public IPs, restrict regions, require encryption). They enforce compliance by construction, independent of individual IAM permissions.
What is the difference between preventive and detective guardrails?
Preventive guardrails stop non-compliant actions before they occur (e.g., a policy denying resource creation). Detective guardrails identify non-compliant configurations after the fact through monitoring and reporting, triggering alerts or remediation.
What is an Audit Trail in the context of cloud security?
A chronological, tamper-evident record of events and actions (who did what, when, from where) across cloud resources. It supports accountability, forensic investigation, compliance evidence, and detection of unauthorized activity.
What is AWS CloudTrail and what does it record?
An AWS service that logs API calls and account activity, recording the identity of the caller, the time, the source IP, the request parameters, and the response. It provides the audit trail used for governance, compliance, and security analysis. (Equivalents: Azure Activity Log, Google Cloud Audit Logs.)
Why should audit logs be stored immutably and in a separate account?
To prevent attackers from deleting or altering evidence of their activity. Storing logs immutably (e.g., write-once storage, object lock) in a dedicated, tightly controlled account preserves integrity for forensics and compliance.
What is GRC (Governance, Risk, and Compliance)?
An integrated framework aligning IT and security with business objectives. Governance sets policies and accountability, Risk identifies and manages threats to objectives, and Compliance ensures adherence to laws, regulations, and internal standards.
What is the difference between a control and a policy in GRC?
A policy is a high-level statement of intent or rule (what must be done and why). A control is the specific technical or procedural safeguard implemented to enforce the policy and reduce risk (how it is done).
How is risk commonly quantified in risk management?
Risk is expressed as a function of likelihood and impact: $$\text{Risk} = \text{Likelihood} \times \text{Impact}$$ Higher scores indicate risks that require prioritized treatment (mitigate, transfer, accept, or avoid).
Define the risk-management formula terms ALE, SLE, and ARO.
$SLE$ (Single Loss Expectancy) is the cost of one incident; $ARO$ (Annualized Rate of Occurrence) is how many times per year it is expected; and $$ALE = SLE \times ARO$$ gives the Annualized Loss Expectancy used to justify security spending.
What is the difference between SOC 2 and ISO 27001?
SOC 2 is an attestation report (by an auditor) on controls relevant to the Trust Services Criteria (security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, privacy), common in North America. ISO 27001 is an international certifiable standard for an Information Security Management System (ISMS).
What does GDPR regulate and to whom does it apply?
The EU General Data Protection Regulation governs the processing of personal data of individuals in the EU/EEA. It applies to any organization worldwide handling such data, mandating lawful basis, data-subject rights, breach notification, and heavy fines for non-compliance.
What is HIPAA and what data does it protect?
The U.S. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act protects Protected Health Information (PHI). It requires safeguards (administrative, physical, technical) for healthcare data; cloud providers handling PHI must sign a Business Associate Agreement (BAA).
What is PCI DSS and who must comply?
The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard is a set of requirements for any organization that stores, processes, or transmits cardholder data. It mandates controls like network segmentation, encryption of cardholder data, access control, and regular testing.
What is the difference between compliance and security?
Security is the actual protection of systems and data against threats. Compliance is meeting a defined set of external or internal requirements. An organization can be compliant yet insecure (controls satisfy an audit but real gaps remain), so compliance is a baseline, not a guarantee of security.
Cloud Computing Cloud Security and Compliance FAQ
What is in the Cloud Computing Cloud Security and Compliance syllabus?
Cloud Computing Cloud Security and Compliance is split into 5 chapters: Cloud Security Fundamentals, Data Protection and Encryption, Network Security, Identity Security and Governance and Compliance and Risk Management. Together they contain 20 topics.
How many chapters are in Cloud Computing Cloud Security and Compliance?
5 chapters, containing 20 topics. The largest chapter is Cloud Security Fundamentals, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for Cloud Computing Cloud Security and Compliance?
Yes — a 50-card Cloud Security and Compliance deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.