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Clinical Obstetrics and Gynecology Syllabus
The Obstetrics and Gynecology syllabus for Clinical in full: 11 chapters, 30 topics and 82 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 53 Obstetrics and Gynecology flashcards with answers.
Obstetrics and Gynecology syllabus: all 11 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Introduction to Obstetrics and Gynecology
2 topics- History and Evolution
- Ancient Practices
- Modern Developments
- Basic Terminology
- Obstetrics Terms
- Gynecology Terms
- History and Evolution
-
Anatomy and Physiology
3 topics- Female Reproductive Anatomy
- External Genitalia
- Internal Genitalia
- Menstrual Cycle
- Phases of Menstrual Cycle
- Hormonal Regulation
- Fetal Development
- Stages of Fetal Growth
- Placental Function
- Female Reproductive Anatomy
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Prenatal Care
3 topics- Antenatal Visits
- Schedule of Visits
- Routine Examinations
- Screening and Diagnostic Tests
- Ultrasound
- Blood Tests
- Genetic Screening
- Nutrition and Lifestyle
- Dietary Recommendations
- Exercise Guidelines
- Antenatal Visits
-
Labor and Delivery
3 topics- Stages of Labor
- First Stage
- Second Stage
- Third Stage
- Labor Complications
- Preterm Labor
- Breech Presentation
- Fetal Distress
- Delivery Methods
- Vaginal Delivery
- Cesarean Section
- Stages of Labor
-
Postpartum Care
3 topics- Immediate Postpartum Period
- Monitoring and Assessment
- Common Complications
- Breastfeeding
- Lactation Physiology
- Breastfeeding Techniques
- Postpartum Depression
- Signs and Symptoms
- Management and Treatment
- Immediate Postpartum Period
-
Gynecological Disorders
4 topics- Menstrual Disorders
- Amenorrhea
- Dysmenorrhea
- Menorrhagia
- Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
- Etiology
- Clinical Features
- Management
- Endometriosis
- Pathophysiology
- Diagnosis
- Treatment Options
- Ovarian Cysts
- Types of Ovarian Cysts
- Symptoms and Diagnosis
- Management
- Menstrual Disorders
-
Gynecological Oncology
3 topics- Cervical Cancer
- Risk Factors
- Screening and Prevention
- Treatment Modalities
- Ovarian Cancer
- Clinical Presentation
- Diagnostic Workup
- Management Strategies
- Endometrial Cancer
- Pathogenesis
- Clinical Features
- Treatment Options
- Cervical Cancer
-
Reproductive Endocrinology
3 topics- Infertility
- Causes of Infertility
- Diagnostic Evaluation
- Treatment Approaches
- Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)
- Pathophysiology
- Clinical Manifestations
- Management
- Menopause
- Physiological Changes
- Symptoms and Diagnosis
- Hormone Replacement Therapy
- Infertility
-
Contraception
2 topics- Types of Contraception
- Barrier Methods
- Hormonal Methods
- Intrauterine Devices (IUDs)
- Permanent Methods
- Emergency Contraception
- Types and Usage
- Mechanism of Action
- Efficacy and Safety
- Types of Contraception
-
Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)
2 topics- Common STIs
- Chlamydia
- Gonorrhea
- Syphilis
- Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
- HIV/AIDS
- Diagnosis and Management
- Screening Tests
- Treatment Protocols
- Prevention Strategies
- Common STIs
-
Urogynecology
2 topics- Urinary Incontinence
- Types of Incontinence
- Diagnostic Evaluation
- Management Options
- Pelvic Organ Prolapse
- Etiology and Risk Factors
- Clinical Presentation
- Treatment Approaches
- Urinary Incontinence
Clinical Obstetrics and Gynecology flashcards β 53 questions with answers
What is the origin of the term "obstetrics," and what does the specialty address?
It derives from the Latin "obstetrix" (midwife), from "obstare" (to stand by). Obstetrics is the branch of medicine dealing with pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period.
Who is credited as the "Father of Modern Gynecology," and why is his legacy controversial?
J. Marion Sims, for developing surgical repair of vesicovaginal fistula and the Sims speculum. His legacy is controversial because he performed experimental operations on enslaved Black women without anesthesia or consent.
Define gravidity and parity.
Gravidity is the total number of pregnancies a woman has had (regardless of outcome). Parity is the number of pregnancies carried to a viable gestational age (usually $\geq 20$ weeks or $\geq 24$ weeks), delivered live or stillborn.
In the GTPAL obstetric shorthand, what does each letter stand for?
G = Gravidity (total pregnancies), T = Term births ($\geq 37$ weeks), P = Preterm births (20β36 weeks), A = Abortions/miscarriages (<20 weeks), L = Living children.
Define the terms nulligravida, primigravida, and multigravida.
Nulligravida: a woman who has never been pregnant. Primigravida: a woman pregnant for the first time. Multigravida: a woman who has been pregnant two or more times.
Name the three layers of the uterine wall from inside to outside.
Endometrium (inner mucosal lining), myometrium (thick middle smooth muscle layer), and perimetrium (outer serosal layer).
What are the four anatomical segments of the fallopian tube from the uterus outward?
Interstitial (intramural) segment, isthmus, ampulla, and infundibulum (with fimbriae). Fertilization typically occurs in the ampulla.
Which ligament contains the ovarian artery, vein, and nerves as they reach the ovary?
The suspensory ligament of the ovary (infundibulopelvic ligament).
What are the three anatomical parts of the uterus?
The fundus (dome above the tubal openings), the body (corpus), and the cervix (lower narrow portion opening into the vagina).
List the four phases of the menstrual (ovarian/uterine) cycle in order.
Menstrual (menses) phase, follicular (proliferative) phase, ovulation, and luteal (secretory) phase. A typical cycle is about 28 days.
What hormonal event triggers ovulation, and roughly when does it occur in a 28-day cycle?
A surge in luteinizing hormone (LH), stimulated by peak estrogen, triggers ovulation around day 14 (about 24β36 hours after the LH surge begins).
Which hormone dominates the luteal phase, and what structure secretes it?
Progesterone dominates the luteal phase; it is secreted by the corpus luteum, which forms from the ruptured follicle after ovulation.
Using Naegele's rule, how is the estimated due date (EDD) calculated from the last menstrual period (LMP)?
EDD = LMP $-\,3$ months $+\,7$ days $+\,1$ year. This assumes a regular 28-day cycle.
What are the three trimesters of pregnancy defined by gestational weeks?
First trimester: weeks 1β12; second trimester: weeks 13β27; third trimester: weeks 28β40 (through delivery).
Distinguish the embryonic period from the fetal period in human development.
The embryonic period spans weeks 3β8 after fertilization (organogenesis, greatest teratogenic vulnerability). The fetal period runs from week 9 until birth (growth and maturation of organs).
At approximately what gestational age does the fetal heartbeat first become detectable by transvaginal ultrasound?
Around 6 weeks of gestation (about 5.5β6 weeks), when cardiac activity can first be visualized.
What is "quickening," and when is it typically first felt?
Quickening is the mother's first perception of fetal movements, usually felt around 16β20 weeks (earlier in multiparous women, around 16 weeks; later in first pregnancies).
What is the generally accepted threshold of fetal viability, and why is it significant?
About 24 weeks of gestation (some centers 22β23 weeks). It marks the gestational age at which a fetus has a reasonable chance of survival outside the uterus with intensive neonatal care.
What is the recommended schedule of routine antenatal visits in a typical low-risk pregnancy?
Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks from 28β36 weeks, and weekly from 36 weeks until delivery.
Which measurements are routinely recorded at each antenatal visit to monitor progress?
Maternal blood pressure, weight, urine dipstick (protein/glucose), symphysis-fundal height, and fetal heart rate; fetal presentation is assessed in later visits.
Show the other 33 Obstetrics and Gynecology flashcards
After 20 weeks, how does symphysis-fundal height (in cm) relate to gestational age?
The fundal height in centimeters approximately equals the gestational age in weeks ($\pm 2$ cm), e.g., about 30 cm at 30 weeks.
What does the first-trimester combined screening test measure to assess aneuploidy risk?
Nuchal translucency on ultrasound plus maternal serum beta-hCG and PAPP-A (pregnancy-associated plasma protein A), done at 11β14 weeks.
What four analytes are measured in the second-trimester "quad screen"?
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), beta-hCG, unconjugated estriol, and inhibin A.
How does non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) work, and what is it used to detect?
NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in maternal blood (from about 10 weeks) to screen for common aneuploidies such as trisomy 21, 18, and 13, and fetal sex/Rh status. It is a screening, not diagnostic, test.
Compare chorionic villus sampling (CVS) and amniocentesis in timing and sampled tissue.
CVS samples placental (chorionic villus) tissue at 10β13 weeks; amniocentesis samples amniotic fluid at 15β20 weeks. Both are diagnostic for chromosomal/genetic conditions and carry a small miscarriage risk.
How is gestational diabetes screened for, and what test confirms it?
Screening at 24β28 weeks with a 50 g 1-hour glucose challenge test; if abnormal, confirm with a 3-hour 100 g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). Some use a one-step 75 g 2-hour OGTT.
How much folic acid is recommended before and in early pregnancy, and why?
$400\text{β}800\ \mu g$ daily (up to 4 mg for high-risk women), started ideally at least 1 month before conception, to reduce the risk of fetal neural tube defects.
What is the recommended total weight gain during pregnancy for a woman with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI?
About 11.5β16 kg (25β35 lb) for a normal BMI ($18.5 \leq \text{BMI} < 25$). Recommendations are higher for underweight and lower for overweight/obese women.
Name three foods or substances pregnant women are advised to avoid, and the main reason for each.
High-mercury fish (neurotoxicity), unpasteurized dairy/deli meats (listeriosis risk), raw/undercooked meat and eggs (toxoplasmosis, salmonella), and alcohol (fetal alcohol spectrum disorders).
What are the three stages of labor?
First stage: onset of regular contractions to full cervical dilation (10 cm). Second stage: full dilation to delivery of the baby. Third stage: delivery of the baby to delivery of the placenta.
How are the latent and active phases of the first stage of labor distinguished?
The latent phase is slow cervical dilation from 0 to about 6 cm with irregular contractions; the active phase is more rapid dilation from about 6 cm to 10 cm with strong regular contractions.
List the cardinal movements of labor in order.
Engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation (restitution), and expulsion.
What defines the third stage of labor as prolonged, and what are three signs of placental separation?
Prolonged if the placenta is undelivered after 30 minutes. Signs of separation: a gush of blood, lengthening of the umbilical cord, and rising/globular firm uterus.
Define preterm labor and post-term pregnancy by gestational age.
Preterm labor: regular contractions with cervical change before 37 weeks. Post-term (postdates) pregnancy: gestation continuing beyond 42 weeks.
What is shoulder dystocia, and name one common maneuver used to relieve it.
Shoulder dystocia is impaction of the fetal anterior shoulder behind the maternal pubic symphysis after delivery of the head. The McRoberts maneuver (hyperflexion of maternal hips) with suprapubic pressure is first-line.
Distinguish primary and secondary arrest/failure to progress in labor.
Primary dysfunctional labor is inadequate progress from early active labor; secondary arrest is cessation of previously normal progress. Causes fall into the "3 Ps": Power (contractions), Passenger (fetal size/position), and Passage (pelvis).
What is umbilical cord prolapse, and why is it an obstetric emergency?
It is descent of the umbilical cord below or alongside the presenting part after membrane rupture. It is an emergency because cord compression cuts off fetal blood flow, requiring immediate delivery (usually cesarean).
Differentiate a first-degree from a fourth-degree perineal laceration.
First-degree: involves only vaginal mucosa/perineal skin. Fourth-degree: extends through the perineal muscles, anal sphincter complex, and the rectal (anal) mucosa.
What is the difference between an elective and an emergency cesarean section?
An elective (planned) cesarean is scheduled before labor for a known indication (e.g., placenta previa, breech). An emergency cesarean is performed urgently for maternal or fetal compromise during labor (e.g., fetal distress, cord prolapse).
When are forceps or vacuum-assisted (operative vaginal) deliveries indicated?
In the second stage when the head is engaged and cervix fully dilated, for prolonged second stage, maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, or the need to avoid maternal pushing (e.g., cardiac disease).
What are the classic criteria for a normal spontaneous vaginal delivery ("normal labor")?
Spontaneous onset at term (37β42 weeks), single fetus in vertex (cephalic) presentation, delivery within a reasonable time frame without instruments, and no complications for mother or baby.
What are lochia, and describe the normal color progression postpartum.
Lochia is the postpartum vaginal discharge of blood, tissue, and mucus. It progresses from lochia rubra (red, days 1β3) to lochia serosa (pinkish-brown, days 4β10) to lochia alba (yellow-white, up to ~6 weeks).
Define primary postpartum hemorrhage and give its most common cause.
Primary PPH is blood loss $\geq 500$ mL after vaginal delivery ($\geq 1000$ mL after cesarean) within 24 hours of birth. The most common cause is uterine atony.
What is the significance of uterine involution and fundal position in the immediate postpartum period?
Involution is the uterus returning toward its pre-pregnancy size. The fundus is at about the umbilicus after delivery and descends roughly 1 cm (one fingerbreadth) per day, becoming non-palpable abdominally by about 2 weeks.
Which hormones drive milk production and milk ejection (let-down), and what stimulates each?
Prolactin drives milk synthesis (production); oxytocin drives the let-down (milk ejection) reflex. Both are stimulated by infant suckling; oxytocin is also released by the sight/sound of the baby.
What is colostrum, and why is it important for the newborn?
Colostrum is the thick yellowish first milk produced in the first few days postpartum. It is rich in protein and immunoglobulins (especially secretory IgA), providing passive immunity and acting as a natural laxative to pass meconium.
How does "baby blues" differ from postpartum depression in timing and severity?
Baby blues are mild, transient mood swings/tearfulness affecting up to ~80% of mothers, peaking around days 3β5 and resolving within 2 weeks. Postpartum depression is a more severe, persistent depression lasting >2 weeks, typically within the first year, that impairs function and needs treatment.
What screening tool is commonly used for postpartum depression, and what is a key red-flag symptom requiring urgent care?
The Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS). Thoughts of self-harm or harming the baby (or symptoms of postpartum psychosis) are red flags requiring urgent evaluation.
Define amenorrhea and distinguish primary from secondary amenorrhea.
Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation. Primary: no menarche by age 15 (with normal secondary sexual characteristics) or by 13 without them. Secondary: cessation of previously present menses for $\geq 3$ months (or 3 cycles).
Differentiate menorrhagia, metrorrhagia, and dysmenorrhea.
Menorrhagia: heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding at regular intervals. Metrorrhagia: irregular bleeding between periods. Dysmenorrhea: painful menstruation (cramping).
What is the classic clinical triad/features and typical cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
PID is an ascending infection of the upper genital tract, usually from Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Features include lower abdominal/pelvic pain, cervical motion tenderness, adnexal/uterine tenderness, fever, and abnormal discharge; a serious complication is Fitz-HughβCurtis syndrome (perihepatitis).
What is endometriosis, and what are its three classic symptoms?
Endometriosis is the presence of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterine cavity. The classic triad is dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia (painful intercourse), and infertility; cyclical pain and chronic pelvic pain are hallmark features.
Compare a functional (follicular) ovarian cyst with a corpus luteum cyst.
A follicular cyst forms when an ovarian follicle fails to rupture and continues growing; it is usually asymptomatic and resolves spontaneously. A corpus luteum cyst forms when the corpus luteum fails to regress and fills with fluid/blood; it can cause pain and occasionally rupture or hemorrhage.
Clinical Obstetrics and Gynecology FAQ
What is in the Clinical Obstetrics and Gynecology syllabus?
Clinical Obstetrics and Gynecology is split into 11 chapters: Introduction to Obstetrics and Gynecology, Anatomy and Physiology, Prenatal Care, Labor and Delivery, Postpartum Care, Gynecological Disorders, Gynecological Oncology, Reproductive Endocrinology, Contraception, Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) and Urogynecology. Together they contain 30 topics and 82 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in Clinical Obstetrics and Gynecology?
11 chapters, containing 30 topics and 82 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Gynecological Disorders, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for Clinical Obstetrics and Gynecology?
Yes β a 53-card Obstetrics and Gynecology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.