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CLAT PG Substantive Law (LLM) Syllabus
The PG Substantive Law (LLM) syllabus for CLAT in full: 3 chapters, 9 topics and 13 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 PG Substantive Law (LLM) flashcards with answers.
PG Substantive Law (LLM) syllabus: all 3 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Law of Contracts and Commercial Law
3 topics- Indian Contract Act Principles
- Formation, consideration and consent
- Quasi-contracts and remedies
- Specific Relief and Sale of Goods
- Specific performance and injunctions
- Conditions and warranties
- Negotiable Instruments and Partnership
- Liability on instruments
- Indian Contract Act Principles
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Criminal Law and Procedure
3 topics- General Principles of Criminal Liability
- Mens rea, actus reus and joint liability
- Major Offences
- Offences against person and property
- Criminal Procedure and Evidence
- Investigation, trial and appeals
- Relevancy and admissibility of evidence
- General Principles of Criminal Liability
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Torts, Family and International Law
3 topics- Law of Torts
- Negligence and liability principles
- Family Law
- Marriage, divorce and succession across personal laws
- Public International Law
- Sources of international law and treaties
- State responsibility and human rights
- Law of Torts
CLAT PG Substantive Law (LLM) flashcards — 51 questions with answers
Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, what is the definition of an 'agreement' and a 'contract' (Sections 2(e) and 2(h))?
An agreement (S.2(e)) is every promise and set of promises forming the consideration for each other. A contract (S.2(h)) is an agreement enforceable by law. Thus, Contract = Agreement + Enforceability.
What are the essential elements of a valid contract under Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
Free consent of parties competent to contract, lawful consideration, lawful object, and the agreement not being expressly declared void. Parties must intend to create legal relations.
What constitutes 'free consent' under Section 14 of the Indian Contract Act, and what vitiates it?
Consent is free when not caused by coercion (S.15), undue influence (S.16), fraud (S.17), misrepresentation (S.18), or mistake (S.20-22). The first four make a contract voidable; bilateral mistake of fact makes it void.
What is the rule in Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. regarding offers, as applied in Indian contract law?
A general offer made to the world at large can be accepted by anyone who performs the conditions, and performance itself constitutes acceptance and communication. It is a unilateral contract.
Under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, what is the general rule about consideration, and name two exceptions?
An agreement without consideration is void (ex nihilo nihil fit). Exceptions: (1) natural love and affection between near relatives in writing and registered; (2) compensation for past voluntary services; (3) a written promise to pay a time-barred debt.
What is the difference between a void agreement and a voidable contract under the Indian Contract Act?
A void agreement (S.2(g)) is not enforceable by law from the outset. A voidable contract (S.2(i)) is enforceable at the option of one party (the aggrieved party) and valid until rescinded.
What is the doctrine of 'quantum meruit', and when does it apply in contract law?
Quantum meruit means 'as much as earned'. It allows a party to claim reasonable remuneration for work done when a contract is discharged before completion (e.g., by breach by the other party), preventing unjust enrichment.
Under Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, what is the measure of damages for breach of contract (rule in Hadley v. Baxendale)?
The injured party may recover compensation for loss naturally arising in the usual course of things from the breach, plus loss the parties knew at the time of contracting to be a likely result. Remote or indirect loss is not recoverable.
What is a 'contingent contract' under Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act?
A contract to do or not do something if some collateral event, which is uncertain, does or does not happen (e.g., a contract of insurance or indemnity). It is enforceable only on the happening of that event.
Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, what are the main kinds of specific relief available?
Recovery of possession of property, specific performance of contracts, rectification and cancellation of instruments, rescission of contracts, declaratory decrees, and preventive relief by injunction.
When will specific performance of a contract generally NOT be granted under the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
Where compensation in money is adequate relief, where the contract involves personal/continuous duties the court cannot supervise, where terms are uncertain, or where the contract is determinable in nature.
What is the difference between a temporary (interlocutory) injunction and a perpetual (permanent) injunction under the Specific Relief Act?
A temporary injunction continues for a specified time or until further court order and is granted at any stage of a suit (CPC Order 39). A perpetual injunction is granted by final decree, permanently restraining the defendant.
Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, what is the distinction between a 'sale' and an 'agreement to sell'?
In a sale, property (ownership) in the goods is transferred immediately; it is an executed contract. In an agreement to sell, transfer of property happens at a future time or subject to conditions; it is an executory contract.
Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, what is the difference between a 'condition' and a 'warranty' (Section 12)?
A condition is a stipulation essential to the main purpose; its breach gives a right to repudiate the contract. A warranty is collateral; its breach gives only a right to claim damages, not to reject the goods.
What does the doctrine 'nemo dat quod non habet' mean under the Sale of Goods Act, and name an exception?
It means no one can give a better title than they have; a non-owner cannot transfer good title. Exceptions include sale by a mercantile agent, sale by a person with voidable title, and estoppel.
What is the meaning of 'caveat emptor' under the Sale of Goods Act, and what is its main exception?
'Let the buyer beware' — the buyer is responsible for checking goods before purchase, and there is no implied condition as to quality. Exception: where the buyer relies on the seller's skill for a particular purpose, an implied condition of fitness arises.
Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, what is a 'promissory note' (Section 4)?
An instrument in writing (not a bank/currency note) containing an unconditional undertaking, signed by the maker, to pay a certain sum of money only to, or to the order of, a certain person or to the bearer.
Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, what are the three parties to a bill of exchange and a cheque?
A bill of exchange has the drawer, drawee (acceptor), and payee. A cheque is a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker, payable on demand; its parties are drawer, drawee bank, and payee.
What is the offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (cheque dishonour)?
Dishonour of a cheque for insufficiency of funds or because it exceeds the arrangement. It is punishable with imprisonment up to two years or fine up to twice the cheque amount, or both, subject to notice and complaint conditions.
Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, what is the definition of 'partnership' (Section 4)?
The relation between persons who have agreed to share the profits of a business carried on by all or any of them acting for all. The persons are 'partners' and collectively a 'firm'.
Show the other 31 PG Substantive Law (LLM) flashcards
What is the significance of registration of a firm under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?
Registration is optional, but an unregistered firm cannot sue third parties or partners to enforce contractual rights (Section 69), and partners cannot sue the firm. Registration removes these disabilities.
What is the rule regarding liability of partners under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?
Every partner is jointly and severally liable, along with all the others, for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner (Section 25). A partner is an agent of the firm for the purpose of its business (Section 18).
Under the general principles of criminal liability, what are the two essential elements of a crime?
Actus reus (the guilty act or wrongful conduct/omission) and mens rea (the guilty mind or criminal intent). The maxim is 'actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea' — an act is not guilty unless the mind is guilty.
What is the right of private defence under Sections 96-106 of the IPC/BNS, and when does it extend to causing death?
Nothing is an offence done in exercise of the right of private defence of body or property. It extends to causing death in cases like reasonable apprehension of death, grievous hurt, rape, kidnapping, or robbery.
What is the 'McNaughten Rule' / insanity defence under Section 84 IPC (Section 22 BNS)?
Nothing is an offence done by a person who, at the time, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that it is wrong or contrary to law. It is legal, not medical, insanity.
What is the distinction between 'common intention' (Section 34 IPC) and 'common object' (Section 149 IPC)?
Common intention (S.34) requires a prior meeting of minds and active participation; it is not a separate offence. Common object (S.149) applies to an unlawful assembly of five or more and needs no prior concert, only a shared object.
What are the stages of a crime in criminal law?
(1) Intention (mens rea), (2) Preparation, (3) Attempt, and (4) Commission (the completed offence). Generally only attempt and commission are punishable; mere intention or preparation usually is not (with exceptions).
Under criminal law, what distinguishes 'culpable homicide' from 'murder'?
Culpable homicide is the genus; murder is the species. All murders are culpable homicides but not vice versa. Murder is culpable homicide with a higher degree of intention/knowledge and without falling under the statutory exceptions (e.g., grave and sudden provocation).
What is the difference between 'theft', 'extortion', and 'robbery' under the IPC/BNS?
Theft is dishonest taking of movable property without consent. Extortion is dishonestly obtaining property by putting a person in fear of injury. Robbery is aggravated theft or extortion involving (or threatening) immediate hurt, wrongful restraint, or death.
What are the ingredients of 'criminal conspiracy' under Section 120A IPC (Section 61 BNS)?
An agreement between two or more persons to do, or cause to be done, an illegal act, or a legal act by illegal means. For offences other than serious ones, an overt act in pursuance of the agreement is required.
What is the definition and punishment framework for 'cheating' under Section 415/420 IPC (Sections 318/318(4) BNS)?
Cheating is deceiving a person to fraudulently or dishonestly induce them to deliver property or do/omit an act causing harm. Cheating and dishonestly inducing delivery of property (S.420) is punishable up to 7 years and fine.
Under the criminal procedure, what is the difference between a 'cognizable' and a 'non-cognizable' offence?
In a cognizable offence, police may arrest without a warrant and start investigation without a magistrate's order (usually serious offences). In a non-cognizable offence, police need a warrant and magistrate's permission to investigate.
What is an FIR (First Information Report) under Section 154 CrPC (Section 173 BNSS)?
The information first given to the officer in charge of a police station relating to the commission of a cognizable offence, reduced to writing, read over to the informant, and signed. It sets the criminal law in motion.
What is the difference between a 'bailable' and a 'non-bailable' offence under the CrPC/BNSS?
In a bailable offence, bail is a matter of right and must be granted. In a non-bailable offence, bail is a matter of judicial discretion of the court, granted on considering the gravity and circumstances.
What is 'anticipatory bail' and under which provision is it granted?
Bail granted in anticipation of arrest for a non-bailable offence, under Section 438 CrPC (Section 482 BNSS). It is a direction that the person be released on bail if arrested, protecting personal liberty against unjustified arrest.
Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam), what is the distinction between 'may presume', 'shall presume', and 'conclusive proof'?
'May presume' gives the court discretion to presume a fact (rebuttable). 'Shall presume' obliges the court to presume unless disproved (rebuttable). 'Conclusive proof' means once one fact is proved, the other is treated as proved and no evidence to disprove it is allowed.
What is the difference between 'admission' and 'confession' under the Indian Evidence Act?
An admission is a statement (oral/documentary) suggesting an inference about a fact in issue, in civil or criminal matters. A confession is an admission of guilt made by an accused in a criminal case; it is a species of admission.
What is the doctrine of 'res gestae' under Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act?
Facts so connected with a fact in issue as to form part of the same transaction are relevant, even if not in issue. Spontaneous statements made during the event are admissible as part of the res gestae.
Under the law of torts, what does 'damnum sine injuria' mean, and how does it differ from 'injuria sine damno'?
Damnum sine injuria is actual loss without violation of a legal right — not actionable (Gloucester Grammar School case). Injuria sine damno is violation of a legal right without actual loss — actionable per se (Ashby v. White).
What is the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher (strict liability) in tort law?
A person who, for his own purposes, brings onto his land and keeps anything likely to do mischief if it escapes, must keep it at his peril and is liable for all damage caused by its escape (non-natural use of land), regardless of negligence.
How does 'absolute liability' (M.C. Mehta v. Union of India) differ from strict liability?
Absolute liability applies to enterprises engaged in hazardous activities; the enterprise is liable for harm from escape without any of the exceptions available under Rylands v. Fletcher (no act of God, no third-party defence). Liability is absolute and non-delegable.
What is 'vicarious liability' in the law of torts, and on what principle does it rest?
Liability of one person for the tortious act of another due to a relationship between them (e.g., master-servant, principal-agent). It rests on 'qui facit per alium facit per se' and 'respondeat superior' (let the master answer).
What are the essential elements of the tort of negligence?
(1) A duty of care owed by the defendant to the plaintiff; (2) breach of that duty; (3) damage caused as a direct and proximate result of the breach (causation and remoteness). Established in Donoghue v. Stevenson.
What is the defence of 'volenti non fit injuria' in tort law?
To one who is willing, no harm is done. Where the plaintiff has voluntarily consented to a known risk (with free consent and full knowledge), he cannot claim for resulting harm. Mere knowledge is not enough; there must be consent.
Under Hindu law, what are the conditions for a valid Hindu marriage under Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
Neither party has a living spouse (monogamy), capacity to consent (sound mind), age (groom 21, bride 18), parties not within prohibited degrees of relationship or sapinda relationship unless custom permits.
What are the grounds for divorce common to both spouses under Section 13 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
Adultery, cruelty, desertion (2 years), conversion to another religion, unsoundness of mind, virulent leprosy/venereal disease, renunciation of the world, and presumption of death (not heard of for 7 years).
Under Muslim law, what are the essentials of a valid marriage (Nikah)?
Proposal (ijab) and acceptance (qubul) at the same meeting, competence of parties (puberty and sound mind), free consent, presence of witnesses (under Sunni law), and consideration in the form of dower (mahr).
In Hindu law, what is the difference between a 'coparcener' and a 'member' of a Hindu Joint Family?
A coparcener acquires by birth an interest in the ancestral/coparcenary property and can demand partition; the body is limited to those who take such interest. A member belongs to the joint family but has no birthright to demand partition of coparcenary property.
In Public International Law, what are the sources of international law under Article 38 of the ICJ Statute?
(1) International conventions/treaties; (2) international custom (general practice accepted as law); (3) general principles of law recognized by civilized nations; and, as subsidiary means, (4) judicial decisions and teachings of qualified publicists.
In Public International Law, what is the distinction between the 'monist' and 'dualist' theories of the relationship between international and municipal law?
Monism treats international and municipal law as one unified legal system, with international law directly applicable domestically. Dualism treats them as separate systems, so international law must be transformed/incorporated into domestic law to apply internally.
What are the four elements of statehood under the Montevideo Convention, 1933?
(1) A permanent population; (2) a defined territory; (3) a government; and (4) the capacity to enter into relations with other States (sovereignty/independence).
CLAT PG Substantive Law (LLM) FAQ
What is in the CLAT PG Substantive Law (LLM) syllabus?
CLAT PG Substantive Law (LLM) is split into 3 chapters: Law of Contracts and Commercial Law, Criminal Law and Procedure and Torts, Family and International Law. Together they contain 9 topics and 13 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in CLAT PG Substantive Law (LLM)?
3 chapters, containing 9 topics and 13 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Law of Contracts and Commercial Law, with 3 topics.
Are there flashcards for CLAT PG Substantive Law (LLM)?
Yes — a 51-card PG Substantive Law (LLM) deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.