🇮🇳 CLAT PG · subject
CLAT PG Constitutional Law Syllabus
The Constitutional Law syllabus for CLAT PG in full: 6 chapters, 19 topics and 12 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Constitutional Law flashcards with answers.
Constitutional Law syllabus: all 6 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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General Principles
1 topic- Scope and Nature of Fundamental Rights
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Specific Rights
6 topics- Right to Equality
- Right to Freedom
- Right Against Exploitation
- Right to Freedom of Religion
- Cultural and Educational Rights
- Right to Constitutional Remedies
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Directive Principles of State Policy
3 topics- Social and Economic Charter
- Social Security Charter
- Community Welfare Charter
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Union and State Executive
4 topics- President and Vice-President
- Powers and Functions
- Governor
- Powers and Functions
- Council of Ministers
- Appointment and Functions
- Attorney General and Advocate General
- Powers and Functions
- President and Vice-President
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Union and State Legislature
2 topics- Parliament
- Composition and Functions
- Legislative Procedure
- Privileges and Powers
- State Legislatures
- Composition and Functions
- Legislative Procedure
- Parliament
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Judiciary
3 topics- Supreme Court
- Jurisdiction and Powers
- High Courts
- Jurisdiction and Powers
- Subordinate Courts
- Structure and Functions
- Supreme Court
CLAT PG Constitutional Law flashcards — 50 questions with answers
What is the Preamble of the Indian Constitution and is it enforceable in a court of law?
The Preamble is the introductory statement declaring the Constitution's source of authority (We, the People), the nature of the State (Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic), and its objectives (Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity). It is non-justiciable (not enforceable in court) but is part of the Constitution and aids in interpretation.
Which words were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?
The words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. The Preamble's description became 'Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic' and 'unity and integrity of the Nation'.
Can the Preamble be amended, and which case settled this?
Yes, the Preamble can be amended under Article 368, but its basic structure cannot be altered. This was settled in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), which overruled Berubari Union (1960) that had held the Preamble was not part of the Constitution.
What is the nature of the Indian Constitution regarding federalism?
The Indian Constitution is quasi-federal (federal in form, unitary in spirit). It has federal features (dual government, division of powers, written/rigid constitution, independent judiciary) and unitary features (strong Centre, single citizenship, all-India services, emergency provisions, single Constitution). The Supreme Court in S.R. Bommai called it 'federal with a strong centralizing tendency.'
Is the Indian Constitution rigid or flexible?
It is partly rigid and partly flexible. Some provisions can be amended by a simple majority, some by a special majority of Parliament, and some by a special majority plus ratification by half the state legislatures.
What do Articles 1 to 4 of the Indian Constitution deal with?
Articles 1-4 deal with the Union and its Territory: Article 1 (Name and territory of the Union - 'India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States'), Article 2 (admission/establishment of new states), Article 3 (formation of new states and alteration of areas/boundaries/names), and Article 4 (consequential provisions for laws under Articles 2 and 3).
What is the procedure to form a new state or alter state boundaries under Article 3?
A Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament only on the recommendation of the President. The President must refer the Bill to the concerned state legislature for its views within a specified period, but Parliament is NOT bound by those views. The Bill is then passed by a simple majority.
What is the difference between the 'territory of India' and the 'Union of States'?
The 'territory of India' (Article 1) is wider and includes: (i) territories of the States, (ii) Union Territories, and (iii) territories that may be acquired. The 'Union of States' is narrower and includes only the States that are members of the federation sharing power; UTs and acquired territories are not members of the Union.
What are the types of citizenship recognized in India and which articles govern citizenship?
India has single citizenship (one citizenship for the whole country, no separate state citizenship). Citizenship is dealt with under Articles 5-11 of the Constitution, and detailed provisions are in the Citizenship Act, 1955. Article 11 empowers Parliament to regulate citizenship by law.
What are the five modes of acquiring citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955?
Citizenship can be acquired by: (1) Birth, (2) Descent, (3) Registration, (4) Naturalisation, and (5) Incorporation of territory.
What is the definition of 'State' under Article 12?
Under Article 12, 'the State' includes: (i) the Government and Parliament of India, (ii) the Government and Legislature of each State, (iii) all local authorities (municipalities, panchayats, etc.), and (iv) other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.
What does Article 13 provide regarding laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights?
Article 13 declares that any law inconsistent with or in derogation of Fundamental Rights shall be void to the extent of the inconsistency. It provides for judicial review of laws. Article 13(2) bars the State from making laws that take away or abridge Fundamental Rights.
What is the Doctrine of Eclipse under Article 13?
The Doctrine of Eclipse states that a pre-Constitutional law inconsistent with Fundamental Rights is not dead but only dormant (eclipsed) and inoperative against citizens. If the inconsistent Fundamental Right is later amended/removed, the eclipse is lifted and the law becomes operative again. (Bhikaji Narain Dhakras v. State of M.P.)
What is the Doctrine of Severability under Article 13?
The Doctrine of Severability means that when only a part of a law is unconstitutional (violates Fundamental Rights), only that offending part is struck down and declared void, while the valid part remains enforceable if it can stand independently. (A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras)
What does the Right to Equality under Article 14 guarantee?
Article 14 guarantees 'equality before the law' (negative concept, British origin, absence of special privileges) and 'equal protection of the laws' (positive concept, American origin, equal treatment under equal circumstances). It permits reasonable classification but prohibits class legislation and arbitrariness.
What is the test of 'reasonable classification' under Article 14?
Classification is permissible if it satisfies two conditions: (1) it must be founded on an intelligible differentia distinguishing those grouped together from those left out, and (2) the differentia must have a rational nexus to the object sought to be achieved by the law.
What do Articles 15 and 16 prohibit, and what is the key difference between them?
Article 15 prohibits discrimination by the State against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth (general). Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment, prohibiting discrimination on those grounds plus descent and residence (specific to State employment).
What do Articles 17 and 18 of the Constitution provide?
Article 17 abolishes 'untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form (its enforcement is an offence punishable by law). Article 18 abolishes titles, prohibiting the State from conferring titles (except military and academic distinctions) and barring citizens from accepting titles from foreign states.
What are the six freedoms guaranteed under Article 19(1)?
Article 19(1) guarantees six freedoms to citizens: (a) speech and expression, (b) assemble peaceably and without arms, (c) form associations or unions/cooperative societies, (d) move freely throughout India, (e) reside and settle in any part of India, and (g) practise any profession or carry on any occupation, trade, or business. (Sub-clause (f), right to property, was deleted by the 44th Amendment, 1978.)
What rights does Article 21 guarantee and how did Maneka Gandhi expand it?
Article 21 guarantees that no person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) held that the procedure must be just, fair, and reasonable (not arbitrary), effectively reading 'due process' into Article 21 and linking Articles 14, 19, and 21 (the 'golden triangle').
Show the other 30 Constitutional Law flashcards
What does Article 20 protect, and what are its three protections?
Article 20 protects against conviction for offences. Its three protections are: (1) No ex-post-facto law (no retrospective criminal liability/enhanced penalty), (2) No double jeopardy (no prosecution and punishment for the same offence more than once), and (3) No self-incrimination (no person accused can be compelled to be a witness against himself). Article 20 cannot be suspended even during an emergency.
What rights does Article 22 provide to arrested persons, and to whom do they not apply?
Article 22 provides: right to be informed of grounds of arrest, right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner, and right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours. These protections do NOT apply to enemy aliens and persons detained under preventive detention laws (which have separate safeguards).
What does Article 23 prohibit?
Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labour without payment), and other similar forms of forced labour. Any contravention is an offence punishable by law. It protects both citizens and non-citizens against the State and private individuals.
What does Article 24 of the Constitution prohibit?
Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine, or other hazardous employment. It is part of the Right against Exploitation.
What does Article 25 guarantee regarding religious freedom?
Article 25 guarantees to all persons freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practise, and propagate religion, subject to public order, morality, health, and other Fundamental Rights. The State may regulate secular activities associated with religious practice and provide for social welfare/reform and throwing open Hindu religious institutions to all classes.
Distinguish between Articles 25, 26, 27, and 28 (Religious Freedom).
Article 25: individual freedom to profess, practise, propagate religion. Article 26: freedom of religious denominations to manage their religious affairs/institutions and own property. Article 27: freedom from paying taxes for promotion of any particular religion. Article 28: freedom from religious instruction in State-funded educational institutions.
What do Articles 29 and 30 (Cultural and Educational Rights) protect?
Article 29 protects the interests of minorities by allowing any section of citizens to conserve its distinct language, script, or culture, and bars denial of admission to State-aided institutions on grounds of religion, race, caste, or language. Article 30 grants religious and linguistic minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
What does Article 32 provide, and why did Dr. Ambedkar call it the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution?
Article 32 guarantees the right to constitutional remedies - the right to move the Supreme Court directly for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. The SC can issue writs. Ambedkar called it the heart and soul because a right without a remedy is meaningless; Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right and cannot be suspended except during emergency (subject to Article 359).
What are the five writs available under Articles 32 and 226?
The five writs are: (1) Habeas Corpus (produce the body - against unlawful detention), (2) Mandamus (we command - directs a public authority to perform its duty), (3) Prohibition (stops a lower court/tribunal from exceeding jurisdiction), (4) Certiorari (quashes an order of a lower court/tribunal), and (5) Quo Warranto (by what authority - challenges the legality of a person holding a public office).
What is the difference between writ jurisdiction under Article 32 and Article 226?
Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (it is itself a Fundamental Right). Article 226 empowers the High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights AND for any other purpose (legal rights), making the High Court's writ jurisdiction wider in scope. Article 226 is not a Fundamental Right.
What are the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) and where are they found?
DPSPs are guidelines/directives to the State for establishing a social and economic democracy. They are contained in Part IV (Articles 36-51) of the Constitution. They are borrowed from the Irish Constitution and are non-justiciable (not enforceable in court) but are fundamental in the governance of the country (Article 37).
What are the three classifications of Directive Principles of State Policy?
DPSPs are broadly classified into: (1) Socialistic principles (e.g., Articles 38, 39, 41, 42, 43), (2) Gandhian principles (e.g., Articles 40 - village panchayats, 43 - cottage industries, 46, 47, 48), and (3) Liberal-Intellectual principles (e.g., Articles 44 - Uniform Civil Code, 45, 48 - agriculture/animal husbandry, 49, 50 - separation of judiciary from executive, 51).
What is the key distinction between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy?
Fundamental Rights (Part III) are justiciable/enforceable in court, are negative (restrain the State), and aim at political democracy. DPSPs (Part IV) are non-justiciable, are positive (require State action), and aim at social and economic democracy. FRs are individual-centric; DPSPs are society/welfare-centric.
How was the conflict between Fundamental Rights and DPSP resolved by the courts?
In Champakam Dorairajan (1951), FRs prevailed over DPSPs. In Golaknath (1967), FRs were held unamendable. In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), the Court held both must be balanced harmoniously. In Minerva Mills (1980), the Court struck down parts of the 42nd Amendment, ruling that balance/harmony between FRs and DPSPs is part of the basic structure - neither has absolute primacy.
What are Fundamental Duties, where are they listed, and how many are there?
Fundamental Duties are moral obligations of citizens, listed in Part IVA, Article 51A. They were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 (on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee), based on the Russian (USSR) Constitution. Originally 10 duties; an 11th (duty of a parent/guardian to provide education to children aged 6-14) was added by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002, making 11 total. They are non-justiciable.
Who constitutes the Union Executive, and what is the term of the President?
The Union Executive consists of the President (Article 52), the Vice-President, the Prime Minister, the Council of Ministers, and the Attorney General. The President is the head of State, elected indirectly by an electoral college, and holds office for a term of 5 years (eligible for re-election).
Explain the difference between the President's qualified veto, suspensive veto, and pocket veto.
Absolute veto: withholding assent to a Bill entirely. Suspensive veto: returning a Bill (except a Money Bill) for reconsideration, which can be overridden if Parliament passes it again (then the President must assent). Pocket veto: the President takes no action and neither assents, rejects, nor returns the Bill, since the Constitution prescribes no time limit (used by President Zail Singh in 1986).
What is the composition and tenure of the two Houses of Parliament?
The Lok Sabha (House of the People) has a maximum strength of 552, is directly elected, and has a term of 5 years (can be dissolved). The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) has a maximum strength of 250, is indirectly elected/nominated, is a permanent body that is never dissolved, with one-third of members retiring every 2 years (6-year term).
What is a Money Bill (Article 110) and how does its passage differ from an Ordinary Bill?
A Money Bill deals only with matters specified in Article 110 (taxation, borrowing, Consolidated Fund, etc.). It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha (on the President's recommendation). The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations within 14 days, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject. The Speaker certifies whether a Bill is a Money Bill, and that decision is final.
What is the composition of the Supreme Court of India and the retirement age of its judges?
The Supreme Court consists of the Chief Justice of India and other judges (the sanctioned strength is currently 34, including the CJI). A Supreme Court judge holds office until the age of 65 years. High Court judges retire at 62 years.
What are the types of jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India?
The Supreme Court has: (1) Original jurisdiction (Article 131 - Centre-State and inter-state disputes; Article 32 - FR enforcement), (2) Appellate jurisdiction (Articles 132-134 - constitutional, civil, criminal appeals; Article 136 - Special Leave Petition), (3) Advisory jurisdiction (Article 143 - President's reference), and (4) Power of judicial review and as a Court of Record (Article 129).
How are legislative powers divided between the Centre and States, and where are the three Lists found?
Legislative relations are in Part XI (Articles 245-255). The Seventh Schedule contains three Lists: Union List (List I - Parliament legislates, e.g., defence, foreign affairs), State List (List II - State legislates, e.g., police, public health), and Concurrent List (List III - both legislate, e.g., criminal law, education). Residuary powers (matters not in any list) belong to the Union (Article 248).
What is the Doctrine of Repugnancy under Article 254 in Centre-State relations?
Under Article 254, if a State law on a Concurrent List subject conflicts (is repugnant) with a Central law, the Central law prevails and the State law is void to the extent of repugnancy. Exception: a State law reserved for and receiving the President's assent prevails in that State, but Parliament can still later override it.
What are the three types of Emergencies under the Indian Constitution?
(1) National Emergency (Article 352) - on grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion; (2) President's Rule / State Emergency (Article 356) - on failure of constitutional machinery in a State; and (3) Financial Emergency (Article 360) - on threat to the financial stability or credit of India (never been imposed).
What are the procedural safeguards for proclaiming a National Emergency under Article 352?
A National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament by a special majority within one month of issue. Once approved it lasts 6 months and can be extended indefinitely with parliamentary approval every 6 months. The 44th Amendment requires the Cabinet's written recommendation to the President, and Lok Sabha can revoke it by a simple-majority resolution.
What is the effect of a National Emergency on Fundamental Rights (Articles 358 and 359)?
Article 358 automatically suspends the six freedoms under Article 19 (only when the Emergency is on grounds of war or external aggression, not armed rebellion). Article 359 empowers the President to suspend the right to move courts for enforcement of specified Fundamental Rights. The 44th Amendment provides that Articles 20 and 21 can NEVER be suspended.
What is the maximum duration of President's Rule under Article 356?
President's Rule must be approved by both Houses within 2 months and then lasts 6 months at a time, extendable up to a maximum of 3 years. Beyond one year, extension requires that a National Emergency is in operation in the whole/part of the State AND the Election Commission certifies that elections cannot be held. The S.R. Bommai case (1994) made it subject to judicial review.
What does Article 368 provide regarding amendment of the Constitution, and what are the methods?
Article 368 provides the procedure for amending the Constitution. There are three methods: (1) simple majority of Parliament (for certain provisions, outside Article 368), (2) special majority of Parliament (majority of total membership of each House and two-thirds of members present and voting), and (3) special majority plus ratification by at least half of the state legislatures (for federal provisions).
What is the Basic Structure Doctrine and in which case was it propounded?
The Basic Structure Doctrine holds that Parliament's power to amend the Constitution under Article 368 is not unlimited - it cannot alter, damage, or destroy the 'basic structure' or essential features of the Constitution. It was propounded in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) by a 13-judge bench (7:6 majority).
What are some elements held to be part of the 'basic structure' of the Constitution?
Elements include: supremacy of the Constitution, rule of law, separation of powers, judicial review, federalism, secularism, free and fair elections, independence of the judiciary, sovereignty/unity/integrity of India, parliamentary system, and the harmony/balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles. (Identified across cases like Kesavananda Bharati, Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain, Minerva Mills, and S.R. Bommai.)
CLAT PG Constitutional Law FAQ
What is in the CLAT PG Constitutional Law syllabus?
CLAT PG Constitutional Law is split into 6 chapters: General Principles, Specific Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, Union and State Executive, Union and State Legislature and Judiciary. Together they contain 19 topics and 12 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in CLAT PG Constitutional Law?
6 chapters, containing 19 topics and 12 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Specific Rights, with 6 topics.
Are there flashcards for CLAT PG Constitutional Law?
Yes — a 50-card Constitutional Law deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.