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Chartered Global Management Accountant (CGMA) Business Ethics, Governance, and Integrated Reporting Syllabus
The Business Ethics, Governance, and Integrated Reporting syllabus for Chartered Global Management Accountant (CGMA) in full: 3 chapters, 12 topics and 14 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 51 Business Ethics, Governance, and Integrated Reporting flashcards with answers.
Business Ethics, Governance, and Integrated Reporting syllabus: all 3 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Professional Ethics for the Management Accountant
4 topics- Fundamental Ethical Principles
- Integrity, objectivity, and professional competence
- Confidentiality and professional behavior
- Threats and Safeguards
- Self-interest, self-review, advocacy, familiarity, intimidation
- Safeguards created by the profession and the workplace
- Resolving Ethical Conflicts
- The CIMA ethical conflict resolution model
- Whistleblowing and reporting obligations
- Ethical Decision-Making Frameworks
- Fundamental Ethical Principles
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Corporate Governance Frameworks
4 topics- Principles and Codes of Governance
- Agency relationships and accountability
- Rules-based versus principles-based approaches
- Board Structure and Accountability
- Executive and non-executive directors
- Audit, remuneration, and nomination committees
- Governance, Risk, and the Sarbanes-Oxley Context
- Shareholder Engagement and Reporting Obligations
- Principles and Codes of Governance
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Sustainability, Integrated Reporting, and Value Creation
4 topics- The Integrated Reporting Framework
- The six capitals model
- Content elements and guiding principles of <IR>
- Sustainability and ESG Reporting
- Environmental, social, and governance metrics
- Sustainability standards and frameworks
- The Triple Bottom Line and Long-Term Value
- The CGMA Role in Driving Sustainable Business
- The Integrated Reporting Framework
Chartered Global Management Accountant (CGMA) Business Ethics, Governance, and Integrated Reporting flashcards — 51 questions with answers
What are the five fundamental ethical principles in the CGMA/IFAC Code of Ethics?
Integrity, Objectivity, Professional Competence and Due Care, Confidentiality, and Professional Behavior.
Define the fundamental ethical principle of Integrity.
Being straightforward and honest in all professional and business relationships; it also implies fair dealing and truthfulness.
Define the fundamental ethical principle of Objectivity.
Not allowing bias, conflict of interest, or undue influence of others to override professional or business judgments.
What does Professional Competence and Due Care require of a management accountant?
Maintaining professional knowledge and skill at the level required to provide competent service, and acting diligently in accordance with applicable technical and professional standards.
Define the principle of Confidentiality and one of its key limits.
Respecting the confidentiality of information acquired through professional relationships and not disclosing it without proper authority unless there is a legal or professional right or duty to disclose; it applies even in social environments and continues after the relationship ends.
What does the principle of Professional Behavior require?
Complying with relevant laws and regulations and avoiding any conduct that the accountant knows or should know might discredit the profession.
What are the five categories of threats to compliance with the fundamental ethical principles?
Self-interest, Self-review, Advocacy, Familiarity, and Intimidation threats.
Define a self-interest threat and give an example.
A threat that a financial or other interest will inappropriately influence judgment or behavior; e.g., holding shares in a client/employer or being eligible for a profit-related bonus tied to results you report.
Define a self-review threat.
The threat that an accountant will not appropriately evaluate the results of a previous judgment or service performed by themselves (or their firm) on which they now must rely; e.g., reporting on systems they designed.
Define an advocacy threat.
The threat that an accountant will promote a client's or employer's position to the point that objectivity is compromised; e.g., promoting the entity's shares or acting as an advocate in litigation.
Define a familiarity threat.
The threat that due to a long or close relationship with a client/employer, the accountant becomes too sympathetic to their interests or too accepting of their work.
Define an intimidation threat.
The threat that an accountant will be deterred from acting objectively because of actual or perceived pressures, including attempts to exercise undue influence (e.g., threat of dismissal).
In the IFAC conceptual framework, what are the two broad categories of safeguards against ethical threats?
Safeguards created by the profession, legislation, or regulation; and safeguards in the work environment (created by the employer/firm and the individual).
Give three examples of safeguards created by the profession, legislation, or regulation.
Educational and training entry requirements, continuing professional development (CPD) requirements, corporate governance regulations, professional standards, and external monitoring/disciplinary procedures.
What is the basic process for applying the conceptual framework to a threat?
Identify threats to the fundamental principles, evaluate the significance of those threats, and address them by eliminating the circumstances, applying safeguards to reduce them to an acceptable level, or declining/discontinuing the activity.
What is meant by an 'acceptable level' of a threat?
A level at which a reasonable and informed third party would likely conclude that compliance with the fundamental principles is not compromised.
What is the recommended approach when ethical safeguards cannot reduce a threat to an acceptable level?
The accountant should decline or discontinue the specific professional activity or service, and where necessary resign from the engagement or employing organization.
What are the key steps in a structured process for resolving an ethical conflict?
Gather the relevant facts; identify the ethical issues and principles involved; identify affected parties; consider established internal procedures; evaluate alternative courses of action; consult (internally, then professional body/legal advice); and document the issue and resolution.
If an internal ethical conflict cannot be resolved, what escalation route does the Code suggest?
Escalate within the organization (e.g., to the audit committee, non-executive directors, or those charged with governance); obtain advice from the professional body or legal counsel; and if unresolved, consider resigning while complying with confidentiality obligations.
Why should an accountant document an ethical conflict and its resolution?
To provide a record of the facts, issues considered, parties consulted, and decisions made, which protects the accountant and demonstrates that the matter was handled professionally.
Show the other 31 Business Ethics, Governance, and Integrated Reporting flashcards
Name three common ethical decision-making frameworks used to evaluate dilemmas.
The AAA (American Accounting Association) seven-step model, Tucker's 5-question model, and Kohlberg's stages of moral development; the IFAC/CGMA conceptual (threats-and-safeguards) framework is the profession's primary tool.
What are the five questions in Tucker's model for an ethical decision?
Is the decision (1) profitable, (2) legal, (3) fair, (4) right, and (5) sustainable? A decision should pass all five tests to be ethical.
Contrast deontological (duty-based) and teleological (consequence-based) ethics.
Deontological ethics judges actions by adherence to rules, duties, and rights regardless of outcome; teleological (consequentialist, e.g., utilitarianism) judges actions by their consequences—the greatest good for the greatest number.
What does the CGMA Ethical Checklist provide for practitioners?
A practical step-by-step tool to work through an ethical dilemma: recognize the threat, gather facts, evaluate against the fundamental principles, consider alternatives and consultation, and decide on action while documenting the process.
Distinguish between 'rules-based' and 'principles-based' approaches to governance and ethics.
A rules-based approach (e.g., SOX) prescribes specific legal requirements with penalties for non-compliance; a principles-based approach (e.g., UK Corporate Governance Code) sets broad principles applied on a 'comply or explain' basis, allowing judgment.
What does the 'comply or explain' principle mean in corporate governance codes?
Companies must either comply with the code's provisions or publicly explain why they have not, leaving the judgment of adequacy to shareholders rather than regulators.
Define corporate governance.
The system of rules, practices, relationships, and processes by which a company is directed and controlled, balancing the interests of shareholders, management, and other stakeholders.
What is the OECD's role in corporate governance?
The OECD publishes the G20/OECD Principles of Corporate Governance, an international benchmark covering shareholder rights, equitable treatment, stakeholder roles, disclosure and transparency, and board responsibilities.
What is the agency problem in corporate governance?
The conflict arising when managers (agents) act in their own interests rather than those of the shareholders (principals); governance mechanisms and incentives aim to align these interests and reduce agency costs.
What is the difference between a unitary board and a two-tier board structure?
A unitary board (US/UK) has executive and non-executive directors on a single board; a two-tier board (e.g., Germany) separates a management board (executives) from a supervisory board (non-executives/stakeholders).
Why is separating the roles of Chair and CEO considered good governance?
It splits the running of the board (Chair) from the running of the business (CEO), preventing excessive concentration of power in one individual and strengthening board oversight.
What is the role of non-executive directors (NEDs) on a board?
To provide independent judgment and constructive challenge on strategy, performance, risk, and resources; to scrutinize management; and to staff key committees (audit, remuneration, nomination).
Name the three principal board committees and one core function of each.
Audit committee (oversees financial reporting, internal control, and external audit); Remuneration committee (sets executive pay); Nomination committee (oversees board appointments and succession).
To whom is the board of directors ultimately accountable?
To the shareholders (and, more broadly, stakeholders), primarily through the annual report and the annual general meeting (AGM).
What major scandals prompted the US Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002?
The collapses of Enron and WorldCom (and the demise of auditor Arthur Andersen), which exposed accounting fraud and audit failures.
What does Section 302 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act require?
That the CEO and CFO personally certify the accuracy and completeness of the company's financial statements and the effectiveness of disclosure controls in each periodic report.
What does Section 404 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act require?
That management assess and report on the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting (ICFR), and that the external auditor attest to that assessment.
What body did Sarbanes-Oxley create to oversee auditors of public companies?
The Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB).
How does the COSO framework relate to internal control and SOX compliance?
COSO's Internal Control–Integrated Framework provides the widely used model (control environment, risk assessment, control activities, information & communication, monitoring) companies apply to design and evaluate ICFR for SOX Section 404.
What is the link between governance, risk, and compliance (GRC)?
GRC integrates corporate governance, enterprise risk management, and regulatory compliance into a coordinated framework so that risk-taking, controls, and oversight are aligned with strategy and legal requirements.
What are the main mechanisms for shareholder engagement with a company?
Annual general meetings (AGMs) and voting, proxy voting, dialogue with the board/institutional investor stewardship, resolutions, and engagement on ESG and remuneration ('say on pay').
What is a 'say on pay' vote?
A shareholder vote on the company's executive remuneration policy or report, giving owners a formal voice on pay; it may be advisory or binding depending on jurisdiction.
What are the core components of a public company's annual reporting obligations?
Audited financial statements, a management commentary/MD&A, a directors'/governance report, a remuneration report, and increasingly non-financial/ESG and risk disclosures.
What is the purpose of the Integrated Reporting <IR> Framework?
To communicate how an organization creates, preserves, or erodes value over time by connecting financial and non-financial information into a concise, integrated report focused on value creation.
List the six capitals identified in the Integrated Reporting Framework.
Financial, Manufactured, Intellectual, Human, Social and Relationship, and Natural capital.
Name four of the eight content elements of an integrated report.
Any four of: organizational overview and external environment; governance; business model; risks and opportunities; strategy and resource allocation; performance; outlook; and basis of preparation and presentation.
What are the guiding principles of the Integrated Reporting Framework?
Strategic focus and future orientation; connectivity of information; stakeholder relationships; materiality; conciseness; reliability and completeness; and consistency and comparability.
What does 'value creation' over time mean in integrated reporting, and over which time horizons?
The increase, decrease, or transformation of the capitals caused by the organization's business activities and outputs, assessed over the short, medium, and long term.
What is ESG reporting and what do its three pillars cover?
Reporting on Environmental (e.g., emissions, resource use), Social (e.g., labor, diversity, communities), and Governance (e.g., board structure, ethics, controls) factors that affect sustainable performance.
What is the Triple Bottom Line (TBL) concept?
A framework measuring performance across three dimensions—People, Planet, and Profit (social, environmental, and economic)—rather than financial profit alone, to capture true long-term value.
How does the CGMA describe the finance professional's role in driving sustainable business?
As a value steward integrating financial and non-financial information, embedding ESG and risk into strategy and decision-making, ensuring ethical conduct, and reporting transparently on long-term value creation to stakeholders.
Chartered Global Management Accountant (CGMA) Business Ethics, Governance, and Integrated Reporting FAQ
What is in the Chartered Global Management Accountant (CGMA) Business Ethics, Governance, and Integrated Reporting syllabus?
Chartered Global Management Accountant (CGMA) Business Ethics, Governance, and Integrated Reporting is split into 3 chapters: Professional Ethics for the Management Accountant, Corporate Governance Frameworks and Sustainability, Integrated Reporting, and Value Creation. Together they contain 12 topics and 14 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in Chartered Global Management Accountant (CGMA) Business Ethics, Governance, and Integrated Reporting?
3 chapters, containing 12 topics and 14 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Professional Ethics for the Management Accountant, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for Chartered Global Management Accountant (CGMA) Business Ethics, Governance, and Integrated Reporting?
Yes — a 51-card Business Ethics, Governance, and Integrated Reporting deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.