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Chartered Civil Engineer (ICE) Water, Hydraulics and Environmental Engineering Syllabus
The Water, Hydraulics and Environmental Engineering syllabus for Chartered Civil Engineer (ICE) in full: 4 chapters, 19 topics and 10 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Water, Hydraulics and Environmental Engineering flashcards with answers.
Water, Hydraulics and Environmental Engineering syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulics
5 topics- Fluid properties and hydrostatics
- Continuity, energy and momentum equations
- Pipe flow and head losses
- Laminar and turbulent flow
- Friction factors and minor losses
- Open channel flow
- Uniform and gradually varied flow
- Critical flow and hydraulic jumps
- Pumps and turbines
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Hydrology and Flood Management
5 topics- The hydrological cycle and catchment behaviour
- Rainfall-runoff analysis and design storms
- Flood estimation and frequency analysis
- Flood risk assessment and management
- Climate change allowances
- Flood defences and resilience measures
- Sustainable Drainage Systems (SuDS)
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Water Supply and Wastewater Engineering
4 topics- Water demand and distribution network design
- Water treatment processes
- Coagulation, sedimentation and filtration
- Disinfection and quality standards
- Wastewater collection and sewer design
- Wastewater treatment
- Preliminary, primary and secondary treatment
- Activated sludge and sludge management
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Environmental Management and Sustainability
5 topics- Environmental Impact Assessment process
- Carbon management and PAS 2080
- Circular economy and resource efficiency
- Biodiversity net gain and ecological mitigation
- Climate change adaptation and resilience
Chartered Civil Engineer (ICE) Water, Hydraulics and Environmental Engineering flashcards — 50 questions with answers
Define the dynamic viscosity of a fluid and state Newton's law of viscosity in equation form.
Dynamic viscosity $\mu$ is the constant of proportionality between shear stress and velocity gradient (rate of shear strain). Newton's law of viscosity: $$\tau = \mu \frac{du}{dy}$$ where $\tau$ is shear stress, $\frac{du}{dy}$ is the velocity gradient normal to flow. SI unit of $\mu$ is $\text{Pa}\cdot\text{s}$.
What is the relationship between dynamic viscosity $\mu$, kinematic viscosity $\nu$, and density $\rho$?
$$\nu = \frac{\mu}{\rho}$$ Kinematic viscosity $\nu$ has SI units of $\text{m}^{2}/\text{s}$. For water at $20^{\circ}\text{C}$, $\nu \approx 1.0 \times 10^{-6}\ \text{m}^{2}/\text{s}$.
State the hydrostatic pressure equation and give the gauge pressure at a depth $h$ in a static liquid.
Pressure increases linearly with depth: $$p = \rho g h$$ where $\rho$ is density, $g \approx 9.81\ \text{m/s}^{2}$, and $h$ is the depth below the free surface. This is gauge pressure (relative to atmospheric).
How do you locate the resultant hydrostatic force on a submerged plane surface and its centre of pressure?
Resultant force: $$F = \rho g \bar{h} A$$ where $\bar{h}$ is the depth of the centroid and $A$ the area. The centre of pressure lies below the centroid at depth measured along the plane: $$y_{cp} = \bar{y} + \frac{I_{G}}{\bar{y} A}$$ where $I_{G}$ is the second moment of area about the centroidal axis.
State Archimedes' principle and the condition for stable equilibrium of a floating body.
Buoyancy force equals the weight of fluid displaced: $F_{B} = \rho g V_{disp}$. A floating body is in stable equilibrium when the metacentre $M$ lies above the centre of gravity $G$, i.e. the metacentric height $\overline{GM} > 0$, where $$\overline{GM} = \frac{I}{V} - \overline{BG}$$ ($I$ = second moment of waterplane area, $V$ = displaced volume).
State the continuity equation for steady incompressible flow in a pipe of changing cross-section.
Mass conservation gives constant volumetric flow: $$Q = A_{1} v_{1} = A_{2} v_{2}$$ where $A$ is cross-sectional area and $v$ is mean velocity. So a reduction in area increases velocity proportionally.
Write Bernoulli's equation for steady, incompressible, frictionless flow and name each term.
$$\frac{p}{\rho g} + \frac{v^{2}}{2g} + z = \text{constant}$$ Terms are the pressure head $\frac{p}{\rho g}$, velocity (kinetic) head $\frac{v^{2}}{2g}$, and elevation (potential) head $z$. Their sum is the total head $H$, constant along a streamline (no losses).
State the linear momentum equation used to find forces from a fluid jet or pipe bend.
The net force equals the rate of change of momentum: $$\sum \vec{F} = \rho Q (\vec{v}_{2} - \vec{v}_{1})$$ Applied per component, it gives reaction forces on bends, nozzles, and the force of a jet on a plate, e.g. normal force on a flat plate $F = \rho Q v$.
Define the Reynolds number for pipe flow and give the laminar/turbulent transition values.
$$Re = \frac{\rho v D}{\mu} = \frac{v D}{\nu}$$ For full pipe flow: laminar when $Re < 2000$, transitional $2000 < Re < 4000$, turbulent when $Re > 4000$. It is the ratio of inertial to viscous forces.
State the Darcy-Weisbach equation for friction (major) head loss in a pipe.
$$h_{f} = \lambda \frac{L}{D} \frac{v^{2}}{2g}$$ where $\lambda$ (or $f$) is the Darcy friction factor, $L$ pipe length, $D$ diameter, $v$ mean velocity. For laminar flow $\lambda = \frac{64}{Re}$.
What is the Colebrook-White equation used for, and what does the Moody diagram provide?
The Colebrook-White equation gives the turbulent Darcy friction factor implicitly: $$\frac{1}{\sqrt{\lambda}} = -2\log_{10}\!\left(\frac{k_{s}}{3.7 D} + \frac{2.51}{Re\sqrt{\lambda}}\right)$$ where $k_{s}$ is roughness. The Moody diagram is its graphical solution, plotting $\lambda$ against $Re$ for varying relative roughness $k_{s}/D$.
How are minor (local) head losses expressed in pipe systems?
$$h_{L} = K \frac{v^{2}}{2g}$$ where $K$ is a loss coefficient for fittings/transitions (bends, valves, entries, exits). Example: a sudden exit into a tank has $K \approx 1.0$; a sharp entry $K \approx 0.5$.
For uniform open channel flow, state the Manning equation for mean velocity.
$$v = \frac{1}{n} R^{2/3} S^{1/2}$$ where $n$ is Manning's roughness coefficient, $R = \frac{A}{P}$ is the hydraulic radius (area / wetted perimeter), and $S$ is the bed (energy) slope. Discharge $Q = A v$.
Define the Froude number and classify open channel flow regimes by its value.
$$Fr = \frac{v}{\sqrt{g D_{h}}}$$ where $D_{h}$ is hydraulic depth. $Fr < 1$ subcritical (tranquil), $Fr = 1$ critical, $Fr > 1$ supercritical (rapid/shooting) flow. A hydraulic jump occurs on transition from supercritical to subcritical.
What is specific energy in open channel flow and what occurs at critical depth?
Specific energy is energy per unit weight relative to the channel bed: $$E = y + \frac{v^{2}}{2g}$$ For a given discharge, $E$ is minimum at the critical depth $y_{c}$, where $Fr = 1$. For a rectangular channel, $y_{c} = \left(\frac{q^{2}}{g}\right)^{1/3}$ with $q$ the discharge per unit width.
State the equation for hydraulic (fluid) power of a pump and define overall efficiency.
Hydraulic power delivered to the fluid: $$P = \rho g Q H$$ where $H$ is the pump head. Overall efficiency $$\eta = \frac{P_{hydraulic}}{P_{shaft}} = \frac{\rho g Q H}{P_{input}}$$
Explain how a pump operating point is determined and what NPSH guards against.
The operating point is the intersection of the pump's head-discharge (H-Q) characteristic curve and the system curve (static lift plus friction losses $\propto Q^{2}$). Net Positive Suction Head (NPSH) available must exceed NPSH required to prevent cavitation, which occurs when local pressure drops to the vapour pressure of the liquid.
Compare impulse and reaction hydraulic turbines with a typical example of each.
Impulse turbines (e.g. Pelton wheel) convert all the head to kinetic energy in a jet at atmospheric pressure before it strikes the runner; suited to high head, low flow. Reaction turbines (e.g. Francis, Kaplan) run full of water with a pressure drop across the runner; suited to medium/low head, higher flow.
List the main stages of the hydrological cycle.
Evaporation (and transpiration, jointly evapotranspiration) from water/soil/plants, condensation forming clouds, precipitation (rain/snow), interception, infiltration into the soil, surface runoff and overland flow, groundwater recharge and percolation, and discharge back to oceans via rivers and baseflow.
State the catchment water balance equation over a given period.
$$P = Q + ET + \Delta S$$ where $P$ is precipitation, $Q$ runoff/discharge, $ET$ evapotranspiration, and $\Delta S$ the change in storage (soil moisture and groundwater). Over a long period $\Delta S \approx 0$, so $P \approx Q + ET$.
Show the other 30 Water, Hydraulics and Environmental Engineering flashcards
How do catchment characteristics affect the shape of a flood hydrograph?
Steeper slopes, smaller area, urbanisation/impermeable surfaces, low storage, and high antecedent wetness produce a shorter time-to-peak and higher, sharper (flashier) peak discharge. Permeable soils, vegetation, flat terrain, and storage attenuate and delay the peak, giving a flatter hydrograph.
Define the runoff coefficient and state the Rational Method for peak runoff.
The runoff coefficient $C$ is the fraction of rainfall that becomes surface runoff ($0 \le C \le 1$). Rational Method peak flow: $$Q_{p} = C\, i\, A$$ where $i$ is rainfall intensity (for a duration equal to the time of concentration) and $A$ the catchment area (use consistent units, e.g. $Q$ in $\text{m}^{3}/\text{s}$ with $i$ in $\text{m/s}$, $A$ in $\text{m}^{2}$).
What is a unit hydrograph and on what two principles is its application based?
A unit hydrograph is the direct-runoff hydrograph resulting from 1 unit (e.g. 1 mm or 1 cm) of effective rainfall uniformly distributed over the catchment for a specified duration. Its use relies on the principles of linearity (proportionality) and superposition (time-invariance) of catchment response.
Define an IDF curve and the concept of a design storm.
An Intensity-Duration-Frequency (IDF) curve relates rainfall intensity to storm duration for a given return period (frequency). A design storm is a synthetic rainfall event (depth, duration, temporal profile, and return period) derived from such data, used to size drainage and assess flood response.
Define return period (recurrence interval) and relate it to annual exceedance probability.
The return period $T$ is the average interval between events equalling or exceeding a given magnitude: $$T = \frac{1}{p}$$ where $p$ is the annual exceedance probability (AEP). A 1-in-100-year flood has $p = 0.01$ (1%) of being equalled or exceeded in any single year.
Give the probability that a flood with return period $T$ is exceeded at least once in $n$ years (risk equation).
$$R = 1 - \left(1 - \frac{1}{T}\right)^{n}$$ This is the encounter probability over the design life $n$. For example, a 100-year flood over 30 years has $R = 1 - (0.99)^{30} \approx 0.26$ (26%).
Outline the basis of statistical flood frequency analysis using annual maxima.
A series of annual maximum peak flows is fitted to an extreme-value probability distribution (e.g. Gumbel/EV1, GEV, or in the UK the Generalised Logistic distribution used in the Flood Estimation Handbook). The fitted distribution gives the flood magnitude $Q_{T}$ for any return period $T$ via the growth curve scaled by the index flood (median annual flood $Q_{MED}$).
What is the standard UK method for flood estimation and its two main approaches?
The Flood Estimation Handbook (FEH) is the UK standard. Its two approaches are: (1) the statistical method — using $Q_{MED}$ and a pooled growth curve from gauged/ungauged catchment descriptors; and (2) the rainfall-runoff method (e.g. ReFH — Revitalised Flood Hydrograph model) — converting a design rainfall to a flood hydrograph.
Distinguish fluvial, pluvial, and coastal flooding.
Fluvial flooding is river/watercourse overtopping its banks from excess catchment runoff. Pluvial (surface water) flooding results from intense rainfall overwhelming drainage before reaching a watercourse. Coastal flooding arises from high tides, storm surge, and wave action, often combined with high river levels (tide-locking).
What are the EA Flood Zones used in UK flood risk assessment and planning?
Flood Zone 1: low probability, annual fluvial probability $< 0.1\%$ ($<1$ in 1000). Flood Zone 2: medium, fluvial $0.1\%$ to $1\%$ (1 in 100 to 1 in 1000). Flood Zone 3a: high, fluvial $\geq 1\%$ (1 in 100 or greater), tidal $\geq 0.5\%$. Flood Zone 3b: the functional floodplain that stores or conveys flood water.
Describe the hierarchy of flood risk management options (the sequential approach).
Apply the sequential test to steer development to lowest-risk land first. Then manage residual risk by: avoid, resist (defences/barriers), and resilience (designing to recover quickly, e.g. raised floor levels, flood-resistant materials). Manage flood flows via storage/attenuation, conveyance, source control (SuDS), and provide warning/evacuation and freeboard allowances for climate change.
State the four pillars of SuDS design (the SuDS management train objectives).
SuDS aim to manage surface water sustainably by balancing four pillars: (1) water quantity (control runoff rates and volumes, ideally to greenfield runoff); (2) water quality (remove pollutants); (3) amenity (create better places for people); (4) biodiversity (create and enhance habitat).
Give examples of SuDS components and the concept of the management train.
Components include green roofs, permeable paving, filter strips, swales, infiltration trenches, soakaways, detention basins, retention ponds, wetlands, bioretention/rain gardens. The management train treats and attenuates runoff in sequence: source control, then site control, then regional control, mimicking natural drainage and reducing flow to receiving waters.
What is the target discharge rate for new SuDS development and define greenfield runoff?
New developments should restrict surface water discharge towards the greenfield runoff rate — the rate that would occur from the site in its natural, undeveloped state (commonly characterised by the 1-year greenfield rate, $Q_{BAR}$, or $Q_{1}$). Attenuation storage is provided to limit peak discharge to this rate for the design return period plus a climate change allowance.
How is per-capita water demand and total demand on a distribution network estimated?
Total average daily demand $$Q = P \times q$$ where $P$ is population served and $q$ is per-capita consumption (UK domestic typically around $140\ \text{litres/person/day}$). Network design must also account for peak factors (peak hour/peak day), non-domestic demand, leakage, and fire-fighting flows.
What design rule governs pressures and looping in a water distribution network?
Networks are designed as looped (ring) systems for reliability and to balance pressures, rather than dead-end branches. A minimum residual pressure (commonly about $15\ \text{m}$ head, ~1.5 bar, at the customer) must be maintained at peak demand, while limiting maximum pressure and velocity (typically $1$ to $2\ \text{m/s}$) to control surge and leakage. Analysis uses Hardy Cross / hydraulic solvers to balance heads and flows.
List the conventional sequence of unit processes in potable water treatment.
Screening, coagulation (e.g. adding aluminium sulphate / ferric salts), flocculation, sedimentation (clarification), filtration (rapid gravity or slow sand), and disinfection (chlorination, UV, or ozone), often with pH correction and fluoridation. The aim is to remove turbidity, pathogens, colour, and dissolved contaminants.
Explain the roles of coagulation and flocculation in water treatment.
Coagulation rapidly mixes a coagulant (e.g. $\ce{Al2(SO4)3}$ or ferric chloride) to neutralise the negative charge on colloidal particles, destabilising them. Flocculation is slow, gentle mixing that allows the destabilised particles to collide and aggregate into larger, settleable flocs, which are then removed by sedimentation and filtration.
What is the main disinfection chemistry of chlorination, and why maintain a residual?
Chlorine added to water forms hypochlorous acid: $$\ce{Cl2 + H2O -> HOCl + HCl}$$ $\ce{HOCl}$ is the active biocide. A free chlorine residual is maintained through the distribution network to guard against recontamination, but excess can form disinfection by-products (e.g. trihalomethanes).
Compare combined and separate sewer systems.
A combined sewer carries both foul (wastewater) and surface (storm) water in one pipe; cheaper historically but can cause combined sewer overflow (CSO) spills in storms. A separate system uses distinct foul and surface water sewers, keeping clean stormwater out of treatment works and reducing overflow pollution; preferred for new development (often with SuDS).
What self-cleansing criterion governs gravity sewer (foul) design?
Sewers are sized to achieve a minimum self-cleansing velocity (commonly about $0.75\ \text{m/s}$ for foul sewers at peak flow, ~$1\ \text{m/s}$ for storm) to prevent deposition of solids. Gradients and pipe sizes are chosen so this velocity is reached; flow is usually computed with the Colebrook-White or Manning equation for part-full pipes.
Define BOD and COD and explain their significance in wastewater.
BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) is the oxygen consumed by microorganisms degrading organic matter, usually measured over 5 days at $20^{\circ}\text{C}$ ($\text{BOD}_{5}$). COD (Chemical Oxygen Demand) is the oxygen equivalent of organic matter oxidisable chemically. COD $>$ BOD; both indicate organic pollution load and the strength of wastewater.
List the stages of conventional wastewater (sewage) treatment and what each removes.
Preliminary: screening and grit removal (rags, grit). Primary: sedimentation removing settleable solids and some BOD. Secondary: biological treatment (activated sludge or trickling filter) removing dissolved/colloidal organic BOD via microorganisms, followed by final settlement. Tertiary: polishing for nutrients (N, P), suspended solids, and disinfection before discharge.
Explain the activated sludge process.
Wastewater is aerated in a tank where a suspended culture of microorganisms (mixed liquor) oxidises organic matter. The mixture passes to a secondary clarifier; settled biomass (sludge) is partly returned (RAS) to maintain the population and the rest wasted (WAS). It removes BOD and, with suitable configuration, nitrogen (nitrification/denitrification) and phosphorus.
What are the main statutory stages of an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)?
Screening (is an EIA required?), scoping (what issues/impacts to assess), preparation of the Environmental Statement (baseline, impact prediction, mitigation), consultation (statutory consultees and public), decision-making by the competent authority, and monitoring of significant effects after consent. UK EIA follows the EIA Regulations transposing the EIA Directive.
Define the mitigation hierarchy applied in EIA and ecological design.
Address impacts in priority order: (1) Avoid (prevent the impact, e.g. relocate works); (2) Minimise/reduce (lessen magnitude/duration); (3) Restore/rehabilitate (repair affected receptors); (4) Offset/compensate (provide equivalent gains elsewhere for residual impacts). Avoidance is always preferred; compensation is the last resort.
What is PAS 2080 and the three categories of carbon it addresses?
PAS 2080 is the standard for carbon management in buildings and infrastructure across the whole value chain. It addresses capital carbon (embodied, from materials and construction), operational carbon (from operating the asset), and user carbon (associated with users/occupants), promoting reduction through the carbon hierarchy: avoid/build nothing, build less, build clever, build efficiently.
State the principles of the circular economy as applied to civil engineering resource efficiency.
Design out waste and pollution, keep materials and products in use at their highest value (reduce, reuse, repurpose, remanufacture, recycle), and regenerate natural systems. In construction this means designing for longevity, adaptability and disassembly, specifying recycled/secondary materials, and minimising raw material extraction and landfill (the waste hierarchy).
Define Biodiversity Net Gain (BNG) and its mandatory minimum in England.
BNG is an approach requiring development to leave biodiversity in a measurably better state than before. In England it is mandatory to deliver at least a $10\%$ net gain in biodiversity, measured using the statutory biodiversity metric (habitat units), secured and maintained for a minimum of 30 years, after applying the mitigation hierarchy on-site first.
Contrast climate change adaptation with mitigation and give examples of adaptation/resilience measures.
Mitigation reduces greenhouse gas emissions (the cause); adaptation manages the unavoidable impacts (the effect). Adaptation/resilience examples: increased design freeboard and climate change allowances on flood defences, larger drainage and SuDS capacity, heat-tolerant materials, robust/redundant networks, managed retreat, and flexible designs that can be upgraded as future climate data evolves.
Chartered Civil Engineer (ICE) Water, Hydraulics and Environmental Engineering FAQ
What is in the Chartered Civil Engineer (ICE) Water, Hydraulics and Environmental Engineering syllabus?
Chartered Civil Engineer (ICE) Water, Hydraulics and Environmental Engineering is split into 4 chapters: Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulics, Hydrology and Flood Management, Water Supply and Wastewater Engineering and Environmental Management and Sustainability. Together they contain 19 topics and 10 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in Chartered Civil Engineer (ICE) Water, Hydraulics and Environmental Engineering?
4 chapters, containing 19 topics and 10 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulics, with 5 topics.
Are there flashcards for Chartered Civil Engineer (ICE) Water, Hydraulics and Environmental Engineering?
Yes — a 50-card Water, Hydraulics and Environmental Engineering deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.