🇺🇸 Certified Financial Planner (CFP) · subject
Certified Financial Planner (CFP) Risk Management and Insurance Planning Syllabus
The Risk Management and Insurance Planning syllabus for Certified Financial Planner (CFP) in full: 4 chapters, 16 topics and 23 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 62 Risk Management and Insurance Planning flashcards with answers.
Risk Management and Insurance Planning syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
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Principles of Risk and Insurance
4 topics- Risk Identification and Measurement
- Pure vs. speculative risk
- Risk management techniques (avoid, retain, transfer, reduce)
- Insurance Contract Fundamentals
- Insurable interest and indemnity
- Adverse selection and moral hazard
- Legal Aspects of Insurance Contracts
- Representations, warranties, and concealment
- Riders, exclusions, and endorsements
- Insurance Company Selection and Ratings
- Risk Identification and Measurement
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Life Insurance Planning
4 topics- Determining Life Insurance Needs
- Human life value approach
- Needs analysis (capital retention vs. liquidation)
- Types of Life Insurance
- Term life insurance
- Whole, universal, and variable universal life
- Policy Provisions and Dividend Options
- Nonforfeiture and settlement options
- Policy loans and surrender values
- Taxation of Life Insurance Proceeds and Cash Value
- Determining Life Insurance Needs
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Health, Disability, and Long-Term Care
4 topics- Health Insurance and the ACA
- HMO, PPO, and high-deductible plans
- Health Savings Accounts (HSAs)
- Disability Income Insurance
- Definitions of disability and elimination periods
- Taxation of benefits
- Long-Term Care Insurance
- Benefit triggers and inflation protection
- Hybrid LTC policies
- Medicare and Medicaid Coordination
- Health Insurance and the ACA
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Property, Casualty, and Annuity Risk
4 topics- Homeowners and Renters Insurance
- HO forms and coverage parts
- Replacement cost vs. actual cash value
- Personal Automobile Policy
- Liability, collision, and comprehensive coverage
- Personal Liability and Umbrella Coverage
- Annuities as Risk Transfer Tools
- Fixed, variable, and indexed annuities
- Annuitization and payout options
- Homeowners and Renters Insurance
Certified Financial Planner (CFP) Risk Management and Insurance Planning flashcards — 62 questions with answers
What are the four classic methods of handling risk in the risk management process?
Risk avoidance, risk reduction (control/loss prevention), risk retention (self-insuring), and risk transfer (e.g., insurance).
In risk management, how do you decide between retention and transfer based on loss frequency and severity?
Low frequency / low severity: retain. High frequency / low severity: reduce or retain. Low frequency / high severity: transfer (insure). High frequency / high severity: avoid.
Distinguish a pure risk from a speculative risk and state which is insurable.
A pure risk has only the possibility of loss or no loss (no chance of gain) and is insurable. A speculative risk involves a chance of loss, no loss, or gain (e.g., gambling, investing) and is generally not insurable.
Define the law of large numbers and its role in insurance.
As the number of similar, independent exposure units increases, actual loss experience converges toward the expected (predicted) loss. It lets insurers predict aggregate losses accurately and set premiums.
List the requisites (ideal characteristics) of an insurable risk.
Large number of homogeneous exposure units; loss is definite (time, place, amount) and measurable; loss is accidental/fortuitous; loss is not catastrophic to the insurer; premium is economically feasible; and the chance of loss is calculable.
Differentiate a peril from a hazard, and name the three types of hazards.
A peril is the immediate cause of loss (fire, theft). A hazard is a condition that increases the likelihood or severity of a loss. Three types: physical, moral (dishonesty/intent to cause loss), and morale (carelessness/indifference) hazards.
What is adverse selection and how do insurers control it?
Adverse selection is the tendency of those with higher-than-average risk to seek insurance more than average risks. Insurers control it through underwriting, medical exams, exclusions, waiting periods, and risk-based pricing.
What are the four essential elements required to form a valid insurance contract?
Offer and acceptance, consideration, legal (competent) parties, and legal purpose.
Define the principle of indemnity in insurance.
The insured should be restored to the same financial position held before the loss, with no profit from the loss. It applies to property/casualty contracts but not to valued/life contracts.
Explain the characteristic of an insurance contract being a contract of adhesion and its legal consequence.
The insurer drafts the contract on a take-it-or-leave-it basis, so the insured has no bargaining power over terms. Consequently, ambiguities are construed against the drafter (the insurer).
Why is an insurance contract considered aleatory rather than commutative?
It is aleatory because the dollar amounts exchanged are unequal and depend on a fortuitous event; one party may receive far more (or far less) than the premium paid, unlike a commutative contract of equal value exchange.
Define insurable interest and state when it must exist for life versus property insurance.
Insurable interest means a person would suffer financial loss if the insured event occurs. For life insurance it must exist at policy inception (issue). For property insurance it must exist at the time of loss.
Distinguish a representation, a warranty, and a concealment in insurance contract law.
A representation is a statement believed true that, if materially false, may void the contract. A warranty is a guarantee of truth that must be literally true. Concealment is the intentional failure to disclose a material fact, which can void coverage.
What is the principle of utmost good faith (uberrimae fidei)?
Both parties, especially the applicant, must deal honestly and disclose all material facts. Insurance relies on the insured's truthful disclosure because the insurer cannot inspect every risk.
Define subrogation and its purpose.
Subrogation gives the insurer the right, after paying a claim, to recover the amount from a negligent third party who caused the loss. It supports indemnity and prevents the insured from collecting twice.
What is waiver versus estoppel in insurance law?
Waiver is the voluntary, intentional relinquishment of a known right by the insurer. Estoppel prevents the insurer from later asserting a right when the insured relied on the insurer's prior conduct to their detriment.
What does it mean that an insurance contract is unilateral?
Only the insurer makes a legally enforceable promise (to pay covered losses). The insured makes no enforceable promise to continue paying premiums; failure to pay simply ends coverage.
Which agencies rate insurer financial strength, and what does a high rating indicate?
A.M. Best, Standard & Poor's, Moody's, and Fitch. A high rating (e.g., A++ from Best, AAA from S&P) indicates strong claims-paying ability and low likelihood of insolvency.
What is the A.M. Best rating scale's top designation, and what entity protects policyholders if an insurer becomes insolvent?
A.M. Best's top rating is A++ (Superior). State guaranty associations protect policyholders (up to statutory limits) when an insurer becomes insolvent.
Describe the human life value (HLV) approach to determining life insurance need.
HLV estimates the present value of the insured's future earnings expected to support dependents, net of the insured's self-consumption, taxes, and personal expenses, discounted to today.
Show the other 42 Risk Management and Insurance Planning flashcards
Describe the needs (capital needs) approach to life insurance, including the capital retention vs. capital liquidation distinction.
The needs approach sums the family's cash needs (final expenses, debts, income replacement, education, emergency fund) minus existing resources. Capital liquidation spends down both principal and earnings; capital retention preserves principal and lives only on earnings, requiring a larger amount.
Using capital retention, what life insurance principal provides $40{,}000 of annual income at a 5% net return?
$$\text{Principal}=\frac{40{,}000}{0.05}=\$800{,}000$$
Compare term life insurance with permanent (cash value) life insurance.
Term provides pure death protection for a set period, has no cash value, and low initial premiums. Permanent (whole/universal) provides lifelong coverage, builds tax-deferred cash value, and has higher, level premiums.
Contrast whole life and universal life insurance.
Whole life has fixed premiums, a guaranteed death benefit, and a guaranteed cash value with fixed crediting. Universal life is flexible-premium and adjustable-death-benefit, with cash value credited at current interest rates and transparent mortality/expense charges.
Distinguish variable life and variable universal life from traditional whole life.
Variable and variable universal life let the policyholder direct cash value into separate-account subaccounts (stocks/bonds), so cash value and (partly) death benefit fluctuate with investment performance. They are securities requiring a prospectus, unlike traditional whole life with guaranteed values.
In universal life, distinguish Option A (Option 1) from Option B (Option 2) death benefits.
Option A pays a level death benefit (cash value grows inside a fixed face amount, reducing net amount at risk). Option B pays the face amount plus the accumulated cash value, so the total death benefit increases over time.
What is the formula for an insured's net amount at risk in a cash-value policy?
$$\text{Net amount at risk}=\text{Death benefit}-\text{Cash value}$$
Describe the three nonforfeiture options available when a whole life policyholder stops paying premiums.
Cash surrender value (take the cash), reduced paid-up insurance (a smaller fully paid-up policy), and extended term insurance (full face amount as term for as long as the cash value can fund it).
List the common dividend options in a participating whole life policy.
Take dividends in cash; reduce premiums; accumulate at interest; purchase paid-up additions; and purchase one-year term insurance (the 'fifth dividend option').
Name the standard policy provisions and beneficiary settlement options found in life policies.
Provisions include grace period, incontestability clause, suicide clause, reinstatement, and the entire-contract clause. Settlement options include lump sum, interest only, fixed period, fixed amount, and life income (annuitization).
What does the incontestability clause provide, and what is the typical suicide exclusion period?
After the policy has been in force for two years, the insurer cannot contest the policy or deny a claim for material misrepresentation. The suicide clause typically excludes death by suicide within the first two years, refunding premiums paid.
How are life insurance death benefits generally taxed for income and estate tax purposes?
Death proceeds paid by reason of death are generally income-tax-free to the beneficiary. However, the proceeds are included in the insured's gross estate if the insured held any incidents of ownership at death.
How is the cash value buildup and a withdrawal/surrender of a non-MEC life policy taxed?
Cash value grows tax-deferred. On surrender, gain (cash value minus basis/premiums paid) is taxed as ordinary income. Withdrawals are taxed on a FIFO basis (basis first, tax-free) up to basis; policy loans are generally not taxable while the policy stays in force.
What is a Modified Endowment Contract (MEC), how is it created, and how are its distributions taxed?
A MEC is a life policy that fails the 7-pay test (premiums paid too quickly in the first seven years). Distributions (loans/withdrawals) are taxed LIFO (gain first, ordinary income) and may incur a 10% penalty before age 59½, though the death benefit remains income-tax-free.
What is the transfer-for-value rule and its main exceptions?
If a life policy is transferred for valuable consideration, the death benefit becomes income-taxable to the extent it exceeds the buyer's basis. Exceptions: transfer to the insured, a partner of the insured, a partnership in which the insured is a partner, or a corporation in which the insured is an officer/shareholder.
What are the metallic tiers of ACA marketplace plans and their approximate actuarial values?
Bronze ≈ 60%, Silver ≈ 70%, Gold ≈ 80%, Platinum ≈ 90% actuarial value. Actuarial value is the share of total covered medical costs the plan pays on average.
What is the income range for ACA premium tax credit eligibility and what is a cost-sharing reduction tied to?
Premium tax credits historically apply to households roughly between 100% and 400% of the federal poverty level (income-based subsidies have been temporarily expanded). Cost-sharing reductions (lower deductibles/copays) are available to eligible enrollees who choose a Silver plan.
Define key health-plan cost-sharing terms: deductible, copay, coinsurance, and out-of-pocket maximum.
Deductible: amount the insured pays before the plan pays. Copay: fixed dollar charge per service. Coinsurance: a percentage the insured pays after the deductible. Out-of-pocket maximum: the annual ceiling after which the plan pays 100% of covered costs.
Compare an HMO, PPO, and HDHP/HSA health plan structure.
HMO: must use network providers and a primary-care gatekeeper for referrals; lowest cost, least flexibility. PPO: in- and out-of-network coverage without referrals; more flexible, higher cost. HDHP: high deductible paired with a tax-advantaged Health Savings Account.
State the key tax advantages and 2024 contribution limits of a Health Savings Account (HSA).
An HSA offers triple tax benefit: deductible contributions, tax-deferred growth, and tax-free qualified medical withdrawals. 2024 limits: $4{,}150 (self-only) and $8{,}300 (family), plus a $1{,}000 catch-up for those age 55+; the account must be paired with a qualifying HDHP.
Compare own-occupation, modified-own-occupation, and any-occupation definitions of disability.
Own-occupation: benefits paid if you cannot perform your specific occupation (most liberal). Modified/split: own-occ for an initial period then any-occ. Any-occupation: benefits paid only if you cannot work in any job suited to your training/education (most restrictive).
How are disability income insurance benefits taxed depending on who paid the premiums?
If the employer paid premiums (and didn't include them in income), benefits are taxable. If the individual paid premiums with after-tax dollars, benefits are received income-tax-free.
Define the elimination (waiting) period and benefit period in a disability income policy.
The elimination period is the time between the onset of disability and when benefits begin (e.g., 90 days); a longer one lowers premiums. The benefit period is how long benefits are paid (e.g., 2 years, to age 65, or lifetime).
What is a residual (partial) disability benefit and a cost-of-living adjustment (COLA) rider?
A residual benefit pays a proportionate benefit when a partial disability causes a loss of income (often 20%+). A COLA rider increases benefits during disability, usually tied to inflation, to preserve purchasing power.
What does long-term care (LTC) insurance cover and what triggers benefits?
LTC insurance covers custodial/skilled care (nursing home, assisted living, home care) for chronic conditions. Benefits trigger when the insured cannot perform at least 2 of 6 activities of daily living (ADLs) or has severe cognitive impairment.
List the six activities of daily living (ADLs) used to determine LTC benefit eligibility.
Bathing, dressing, eating, toileting, transferring (mobility), and continence.
What are the parts of Medicare and what does each cover?
Part A: hospital/inpatient (premium-free for most). Part B: physician/outpatient services (monthly premium). Part C: Medicare Advantage (private plans bundling A, B, often D). Part D: prescription drug coverage.
Distinguish Medicare from Medicaid in terms of eligibility.
Medicare is a federal age/disability-based program (generally age 65+ or qualifying disability) regardless of income. Medicaid is a joint federal-state, means-tested program for low-income individuals and is the largest payer of long-term custodial care.
What is a Medigap (Medicare Supplement) policy and what does it do?
Medigap is standardized private insurance that pays Medicare's cost-sharing gaps (deductibles, coinsurance, copays). It works only with Original Medicare (Parts A and B), not with Medicare Advantage.
Identify the standard homeowners forms HO-2, HO-3, HO-5, and HO-4/HO-6, and the difference between named-peril and open-peril (all-risk) coverage.
HO-2 broad named-peril; HO-3 open-peril on dwelling and named-peril on contents (most common); HO-5 open-peril on both dwelling and contents; HO-4 renters; HO-6 condo unit-owners. Named-peril covers only listed perils; open-peril covers all perils except those excluded.
State the coinsurance requirement in homeowners insurance and the formula for a partial-loss recovery.
Homeowners policies require insuring to at least 80% of replacement cost. If underinsured, recovery on a partial loss is reduced by: $$\text{Recovery}=\left(\frac{\text{Amount carried}}{0.80\times\text{Replacement cost}}\right)\times\text{Loss}-\text{Deductible}$$
A home with $400{,}000 replacement cost is insured for $240{,}000; a $50{,}000 loss occurs with a $1{,}000 deductible. What does the HO policy pay under the 80% coinsurance rule?
Required = $0.80\times400{,}000=\$320{,}000$. $$\left(\frac{240{,}000}{320{,}000}\right)\times50{,}000-1{,}000=0.75\times50{,}000-1{,}000=\$36{,}500$$
Identify the six coverage parts (A–F) of a standard homeowners policy.
Coverage A: dwelling; B: other structures; C: personal property; D: loss of use; E: personal liability; F: medical payments to others.
What are the main coverage parts of the Personal Auto Policy (PAP)?
Part A: liability (bodily injury and property damage). Part B: medical payments. Part C: uninsured/underinsured motorist. Part D: coverage for damage to your auto (collision and other-than-collision/comprehensive).
Distinguish collision from comprehensive (other-than-collision) coverage under Part D of the PAP.
Collision covers damage to your auto from impact with another vehicle or object or rollover. Comprehensive (other-than-collision) covers losses like theft, fire, vandalism, flood, hail, and animal strikes.
What do split liability limits such as 100/300/50 mean in an auto policy?
$100{,}000 bodily injury per person, $300{,}000 bodily injury per accident (all persons), and $50{,}000 property damage per accident.
What is a personal umbrella liability policy and what must usually underlie it?
An umbrella provides excess liability coverage (typically $1 million or more) above the limits of the underlying homeowners and auto policies, and can cover some gaps (e.g., libel/slander). Insurers require minimum underlying limits (e.g., $250{,}000/$500{,}000 auto, $300{,}000 homeowners liability).
Define an annuity and distinguish the accumulation phase from the annuitization (payout) phase.
An annuity is an insurance contract that transfers the risk of outliving one's assets by exchanging a premium for a stream of payments. In the accumulation phase, funds grow tax-deferred; in the annuitization phase, the contract pays out income, possibly for life.
Compare a fixed annuity, a variable annuity, and an indexed annuity.
A fixed annuity credits a guaranteed interest rate (insurer bears investment risk). A variable annuity invests in subaccounts so returns vary (owner bears risk; it is a security). An indexed annuity credits interest linked to a market index with a guaranteed minimum floor, subject to caps/participation rates.
Contrast an immediate annuity with a deferred annuity.
An immediate (SPIA) annuity is funded with a single premium and begins payouts within about one year. A deferred annuity accumulates value tax-deferred for years before payouts begin, and may be funded by single or flexible premiums.
Compare a straight-life (life-only) annuity payout with a life-with-period-certain and a joint-and-survivor option.
Straight-life pays the highest income but stops at the annuitant's death (nothing to heirs). Life with period certain pays for life but guarantees payments for a minimum period to a beneficiary. Joint-and-survivor pays over two lives (lower payment) until the second death.
How is the taxable portion of non-qualified annuity income determined during annuitization, and how are early withdrawals treated?
During annuitization, the exclusion ratio determines the tax-free return of basis: $$\text{Exclusion ratio}=\frac{\text{Investment in contract}}{\text{Expected total return}}$$ Pre-annuitization withdrawals are taxed LIFO (gain first, ordinary income) with a 10% penalty before age 59½.
Certified Financial Planner (CFP) Risk Management and Insurance Planning FAQ
What is in the Certified Financial Planner (CFP) Risk Management and Insurance Planning syllabus?
Certified Financial Planner (CFP) Risk Management and Insurance Planning is split into 4 chapters: Principles of Risk and Insurance, Life Insurance Planning, Health, Disability, and Long-Term Care and Property, Casualty, and Annuity Risk. Together they contain 16 topics and 23 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in Certified Financial Planner (CFP) Risk Management and Insurance Planning?
4 chapters, containing 16 topics and 23 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Principles of Risk and Insurance, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for Certified Financial Planner (CFP) Risk Management and Insurance Planning?
Yes — a 62-card Risk Management and Insurance Planning deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.