๐Ÿ‡ฎ๐Ÿ‡ณ CBSE Class 11 ยท subject

CBSE Class 11 Biology Syllabus

The Biology syllabus for CBSE Class 11 in full: 5 chapters and 24 topics, every one listed below, plus 73 Biology flashcards with answers.

5Chapters
24Topics
73Flashcards

Biology syllabus: all 5 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Diversity in Living World

    4 topics
    • What is Living?
    • Diversity in the Living World
    • Taxonomic Categories
    • Taxonomical Aids
  2. Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

    3 topics
    • Morphology of Flowering Plants
    • Anatomy of Flowering Plants
    • Structural Organisation in Animals
  3. Cell Structure and Function

    5 topics
    • Cell Theory
    • Overview of Cell
    • Cell Wall
    • Cell Organelles
    • Cell Division
  4. Plant Physiology

    5 topics
    • Transport in Plants
    • Mineral Nutrition
    • Photosynthesis in Higher Plants
    • Respiration in Plants
    • Plant Growth and Development
  5. Human Physiology

    7 topics
    • Digestion and Absorption
    • Breathing and Exchange of Gases
    • Body Fluids and Circulation
    • Excretory Products and their Elimination
    • Locomotion and Movement
    • Neural Control and Coordination
    • Chemical Coordination and Integration

CBSE Class 11 Biology flashcards โ€” 73 questions with answers

  1. What are the two defining metabolic/biological properties that all living organisms share?

    Metabolism (the sum of all chemical reactions occurring in the body, all of which produce molecules and reactions that do not occur outside the body) and self-consciousness/cellular organisation with the capacity for self-replication, growth, development and response to stimuli. The most defining property of living organisms is self-replication (reproduction) and metabolism; consciousness is regarded as the defining property of higher organisms and humans.

  2. Why is growth NOT considered a defining property of living organisms?

    Because non-living things (like mountains, crystals, sand mounds) also grow by accumulation of material on the outside, whereas living organisms grow from the inside by cell division. Also, dead organisms do not grow. Hence growth is not a reliable defining feature of life.

  3. Define metabolism and state why it is the defining feature of all living organisms.

    Metabolism is the sum total of all the chemical reactions (anabolic + catabolic) occurring in the body. It is the defining feature because no non-living object exhibits metabolism, and all living organisms โ€” even isolated cells โ€” show metabolic reactions. Cellular organisation is the defining feature of life forms.

  4. What is biodiversity, and roughly how many species have been described so far?

    Biodiversity is the number and types of organisms present on earth. About 1.7โ€“1.8 million species have been described and named so far, though the actual number is far larger.

  5. What is binomial nomenclature, who proposed it, and what are its components?

    Binomial nomenclature is the scientific naming system giving each organism a two-part Latinised name: the genus (generic name) followed by the species (specific epithet). It was proposed by Carolus Linnaeus. Example: Mangifera indica (mango).

  6. List the universal rules of biological (scientific) nomenclature.

    Names are Latin/Latinised and written in italics; the first word (genus) starts with a capital letter while the species name is in lowercase; when handwritten both words are separately underlined; and the author's name (abbreviated) is written after the species name in roman (e.g. Mangifera indica Linn.).

  7. List the taxonomic categories (hierarchy) from largest to smallest.

    Kingdom โ†’ Phylum (Division in plants) โ†’ Class โ†’ Order โ†’ Family โ†’ Genus โ†’ Species. As we move from species to kingdom, the number of common characters decreases and the number of organisms increases.

  8. What is a species in taxonomy, and how is it the basic unit of classification?

    A species is a group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring, and is distinguishable from other closely related species by morphological differences. It is the lowest and basic taxonomic category. Example: in Panthera leo, leo is the species.

  9. Name the four major taxonomical aids used by biologists and their purposes.

    Herbarium (collection of dried, pressed, preserved plant specimens on sheets), Botanical Gardens (living plant collections for reference), Museums (preserved plant/animal specimens), and Zoological Parks/Zoos (live wild animals). Keys (taxonomic keys) and monographs/flora/manuals are also taxonomical aids for identification.

  10. What is a herbarium and what label information must each herbarium sheet carry?

    A herbarium is a store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets, arranged according to a universally accepted system of classification. Each sheet bears a label providing the date and place of collection, English/local/botanical names, family, collector's name, etc.

  11. Name the parts of a typical flowering plant's root system and the two main root types.

    The root system includes the primary root and its branches. The two main types are the tap root system (one main primary root with lateral branches, e.g. dicots like mustard) and the fibrous root system (cluster of thin roots from the base of the stem, e.g. monocots like wheat). Some plants have adventitious roots (e.g. grass, banyan).

  12. Differentiate racemose and cymose inflorescence.

    In a racemose inflorescence the main axis continues to grow and flowers are borne laterally in acropetal succession (oldest at base, youngest at top). In a cymose inflorescence the main axis terminates in a flower, growth is limited, and flowers are borne in basipetal order (oldest at top/centre).

  13. Define aestivation and name its four types in a flower.

    Aestivation is the mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in a floral bud with respect to other members of the same whorl. The four types are: valvate, twisted, imbricate, and vexillary.

  14. What is placentation? Name its main types.

    Placentation is the arrangement of ovules within the ovary. Types are: marginal, axile, parietal, basal, central, and free central.

  15. What are the components of the four floral whorls of a flower?

    Calyx (sepals), Corolla (petals), Androecium (stamens โ€” the male reproductive whorl), and Gynoecium/Pistil (carpels โ€” the female reproductive whorl). Calyx and corolla are accessory (non-essential) whorls; androecium and gynoecium are essential reproductive whorls.

  16. Name the three tissue systems in flowering plants and what each comprises.

    Epidermal tissue system (epidermis, stomata, trichomes, root hairs), Ground tissue system (parenchyma, collenchyma, sclerenchyma โ€” cortex, pith, etc.), and Vascular tissue system (xylem and phloem).

  17. Differentiate xylem and phloem in structure and function.

    Xylem conducts water and minerals upward from roots to other parts and provides mechanical support; its elements are tracheids, vessels, xylem fibres and xylem parenchyma (mostly dead). Phloem translocates food (sugars) bidirectionally; its elements are sieve tube elements, companion cells, phloem fibres and phloem parenchyma (mostly living).

  18. Differentiate dicot and monocot stem anatomy regarding vascular bundles.

    In a dicot stem the vascular bundles are conjoint, open (with cambium), arranged in a ring, and few in number. In a monocot stem the vascular bundles are conjoint, closed (no cambium), scattered throughout the ground tissue, and numerous, each surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath.

  19. Name the four basic types of animal tissues.

    Epithelial tissue (covering/lining and glandular), Connective tissue (e.g. blood, bone, cartilage, adipose, areolar), Muscular tissue (skeletal, smooth, cardiac), and Neural (nervous) tissue.

  20. State the postulates of the Cell Theory and who formulated it.

    The cell theory was given by Schleiden (plants) and Schwann (animals) and later expanded by Rudolf Virchow. Postulates: (1) all living organisms are composed of cells and products of cells; (2) the cell is the basic structural and functional unit of life; (3) all cells arise from pre-existing cells (Omnis cellula-e cellula, Virchow).

Show the other 53 Biology flashcards
  1. Differentiate prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

    Prokaryotic cells (bacteria, cyanobacteria, mycoplasma, PPLO) lack a true membrane-bound nucleus and membrane-bound organelles; their genetic material is a single naked circular DNA (nucleoid) and ribosomes are 70S. Eukaryotic cells have a true membrane-bound nucleus, membrane-bound organelles, linear DNA with histones, and 80S ribosomes (70S in their organelles).

  2. Describe the structure and chemical composition of the bacterial cell wall.

    The bacterial cell wall is made of peptidoglycan (murein). Based on cell wall composition, bacteria are classified by Gram staining into Gram-positive (thick peptidoglycan, retain crystal violet) and Gram-negative (thin peptidoglycan with an outer lipopolysaccharide membrane). The cell wall gives shape, structural support, and prevents bursting/lysis.

  3. What is the chemical composition of the plant cell wall and its layers?

    The plant cell wall is mainly composed of cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin and proteins (and lignin in secondary walls). It consists of the middle lamella (pectin, cements adjacent cells), the primary wall (formed first, capable of growth), and the secondary wall (formed inside, towards the membrane, in mature cells). Plasmodesmata connect adjacent cells.

  4. State the fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane and who proposed it.

    The fluid mosaic model, proposed by Singer and Nicolson (1972), describes the plasma membrane as a phospholipid bilayer with proteins (integral and peripheral) embedded in or attached to it, with the lipids able to move laterally (quasi-fluid nature), giving the membrane fluidity that allows growth, endocytosis, etc.

  5. Differentiate mitochondria and chloroplasts in function and key features.

    Mitochondria are the 'powerhouses of the cell' performing aerobic respiration to produce ATP; they have a smooth outer and folded inner membrane (cristae) with a matrix. Chloroplasts perform photosynthesis; they contain chlorophyll in stacked thylakoids (grana) suspended in the stroma. Both are double-membraned, semi-autonomous organelles with their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA.

  6. What is the endoplasmic reticulum and how do rough and smooth ER differ?

    The ER is a network of membranous tubules in the cytoplasm. Rough ER (RER) bears ribosomes on its surface and is the site of protein synthesis and secretion. Smooth ER (SER) lacks ribosomes and is the site of lipid (steroid) synthesis and detoxification.

  7. State the structure and functions of the Golgi apparatus.

    The Golgi apparatus consists of flat, stacked membranous sacs called cisternae with a convex cis (forming) face and a concave trans (maturing) face. It packages, modifies (e.g. glycosylation), and dispatches materials synthesised near the ER; it is the site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.

  8. What are lysosomes and why are they called 'suicidal bags'?

    Lysosomes are single-membrane-bound vesicles formed by the Golgi apparatus, rich in hydrolytic (digestive) enzymes (lipases, proteases, carbohydrases) active at acidic pH. They digest carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. They are called 'suicidal bags' because their enzymes can digest the cell's own worn-out organelles and dead cells (autolysis).

  9. What is the structure of a eukaryotic ribosome and what is its function?

    The eukaryotic ribosome is an 80S particle (S = Svedberg sedimentation unit) made of two subunits: a 60S large subunit and a 40S small subunit, composed of rRNA and proteins. Ribosomes are not membrane-bound and are the site of protein synthesis (translation). Prokaryotic and organellar ribosomes are 70S (50S + 30S).

  10. Name the phases of the cell cycle and the two main divisions of M phase.

    The cell cycle has interphase (G1 phase, S phase โ€” DNA replication, G2 phase) and the M phase (mitotic phase). The M phase consists of karyokinesis (nuclear division) and cytokinesis (cytoplasmic division).

  11. List the stages of mitosis (karyokinesis) in order with one key event each.

    Prophase (chromosomes condense, spindle begins, nuclear envelope disappears), Metaphase (chromosomes align at the metaphase plate/equator), Anaphase (sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles), Telophase (chromosomes decondense, nuclear envelope reforms). Followed by cytokinesis.

  12. How does meiosis differ from mitosis in outcome and number of divisions?

    Mitosis is a single division producing two genetically identical diploid (2n) daughter cells (for growth/repair). Meiosis involves two successive divisions (meiosis I and II) producing four genetically variable haploid (n) cells (gametes/spores), and includes crossing over (recombination) in prophase I.

  13. What is crossing over and in which stage of meiosis does it occur?

    Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material (segments) between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes, producing genetic recombination/variation. It occurs during the pachytene stage of prophase I of meiosis at points called chiasmata.

  14. Define water potential, solute potential, and pressure potential, with their relationship.

    Water potential (ฮจw) is the potential energy of water determining the direction of its movement. Pure water has ฮจw = 0 (the highest). The relationship is ฮจw = ฮจs (solute potential, always negative) + ฮจp (pressure potential, usually positive due to turgor). Water moves from higher to lower water potential.

  15. Differentiate osmosis, diffusion, and active transport in plant water/solute movement.

    Diffusion is passive net movement of molecules from high to low concentration, no energy, no membrane needed. Osmosis is passive movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from higher to lower water potential. Active transport uses carrier proteins and ATP energy to move solutes against the concentration gradient.

  16. What is the transpiration pull (cohesion-tension) theory of water ascent in plants?

    Water is pulled up the xylem as a continuous column. Transpiration from leaves creates a tension (negative pressure) that pulls water upward; water molecules stick together (cohesion) and to xylem walls (adhesion), maintaining an unbroken column. This is the most widely accepted theory for the ascent of sap.

  17. Differentiate macronutrients and micronutrients in plants with examples.

    Macronutrients (macroelements) are required in large amounts (>10 mmol/kg dry matter), e.g. C, H, O, N, P, K, Ca, Mg, S. Micronutrients (microelements/trace elements) are required in small amounts (<10 mmol/kg), e.g. Fe, Mn, Cu, Zn, B, Mo, Cl, Ni.

  18. What is biological nitrogen fixation, and name a symbiotic and a free-living nitrogen fixer.

    Biological nitrogen fixation is the reduction of atmospheric N2 to ammonia (NH3) by living organisms using the enzyme nitrogenase. Symbiotic example: Rhizobium (in legume root nodules). Free-living examples: Azotobacter (aerobic) and Clostridium (anaerobic); cyanobacteria like Anabaena and Nostoc also fix nitrogen.

  19. Write the overall balanced equation of photosynthesis.

    6CO2 + 12H2O โ†’ (in presence of light and chlorophyll) โ†’ C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O. The O2 released comes from water, not CO2 (proven by Ruben using isotopes).

  20. Differentiate the light reaction and the dark reaction (Calvin cycle) of photosynthesis.

    The light reaction (photochemical phase) occurs in the thylakoid membranes; it splits water (photolysis), releases O2, and produces ATP and NADPH using light energy. The dark reaction (biosynthetic phase / Calvin cycle) occurs in the stroma; it is light-independent and uses ATP and NADPH to fix CO2 into sugars (does not require light directly).

  21. Differentiate C3 and C4 plants based on the primary CO2 acceptor and first product.

    In C3 plants the primary CO2 acceptor is RuBP (a 5-carbon molecule) and the first stable product is 3-phosphoglyceric acid (3-PGA, a 3-carbon compound), via the enzyme RuBisCO. In C4 plants the primary acceptor is PEP (phosphoenolpyruvate, 3C) and the first product is oxaloacetic acid (OAA, a 4-carbon compound), via PEP carboxylase; they have Kranz anatomy and lack photorespiration.

  22. What is photorespiration and why is it considered wasteful?

    Photorespiration is the light-dependent uptake of O2 and release of CO2 occurring in C3 plants when RuBisCO binds O2 instead of CO2 (forming phosphoglycolate). It is wasteful because there is no synthesis of sugars, ATP, or NADPH โ€” it consumes energy without producing useful products. C4 plants avoid it.

  23. Differentiate glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation by location and net ATP yield.

    Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm, breaking glucose into 2 pyruvate (net 2 ATP, 2 NADH). The Krebs (TCA/citric acid) cycle occurs in the mitochondrial matrix, producing NADH, FADH2, and 2 ATP (as GTP). Oxidative phosphorylation occurs at the inner mitochondrial membrane (ETะก), where NADH/FADH2 generate most ATP. Total ~36โ€“38 ATP per glucose in aerobic respiration.

  24. What is the respiratory quotient (RQ) and what does its value indicate?

    RQ = volume of CO2 evolved / volume of O2 consumed during respiration. RQ = 1 for carbohydrates, RQ < 1 for fats (~0.7), RQ > 1 (or infinity) for organic acids / anaerobic respiration. It indicates the type of respiratory substrate being used.

  25. Name the five major plant growth regulators (phytohormones) and one key function of each.

    Auxin (promotes cell elongation, apical dominance), Gibberellin (stem elongation, breaks seed dormancy, bolting), Cytokinin (promotes cell division, delays senescence), Ethylene (gaseous; promotes fruit ripening, abscission), and Abscisic acid (ABA; stress hormone, induces dormancy and stomatal closure).

  26. What is photoperiodism and what are short-day and long-day plants?

    Photoperiodism is the response of plants to the relative lengths of day and night (photoperiod) for flowering. Short-day plants flower when the day length is below a critical period; long-day plants flower when the day length is above a critical period; day-neutral plants flower regardless of photoperiod.

  27. Name the four steps of food processing in the human digestive system.

    The processes are: (1) Ingestion (taking in food), (2) Digestion (mechanical and chemical breakdown into absorbable forms), (3) Absorption (uptake of digested nutrients into blood/lymph), and (4) Assimilation/Egestion (utilisation of nutrients and elimination of undigested waste as faeces).

  28. Match these digestive enzymes to their substrates: salivary amylase, pepsin, trypsin, lipase.

    Salivary amylase (ptyalin) digests starch into maltose in the mouth. Pepsin (from gastric juice, active in acidic pH) digests proteins into peptones/proteoses in the stomach. Trypsin (pancreatic) digests proteins/peptides into smaller peptides. Lipase (pancreatic/intestinal) digests emulsified fats (triglycerides) into fatty acids and glycerol.

  29. What is the difference between inspiration and expiration in terms of pressure and muscles?

    Inspiration is active: the diaphragm contracts (flattens) and external intercostals contract, increasing thoracic volume and lowering intra-pulmonary pressure below atmospheric, so air flows in. Expiration is usually passive: the diaphragm and intercostals relax, decreasing thoracic volume and raising intra-pulmonary pressure above atmospheric, so air flows out.

  30. Define tidal volume, vital capacity, and residual volume.

    Tidal volume (TV): volume of air inspired or expired in a normal breath (~500 mL). Vital capacity (VC): maximum air a person can breathe out after a maximum inspiration (ERV + TV + IRV). Residual volume (RV): volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiration (~1100โ€“1200 mL).

  31. How is oxygen and carbon dioxide transported in human blood?

    Oxygen is transported mainly (~97%) as oxyhaemoglobin (bound to haemoglobin) and ~3% dissolved in plasma. CO2 is transported ~70% as bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) in plasma, ~20โ€“25% as carbamino-haemoglobin (bound to Hb), and ~7% dissolved in plasma.

  32. Name the components and functions of human blood.

    Blood is a fluid connective tissue with plasma (~55%, mostly water with proteins like albumin, globulin, fibrinogen) and formed elements (~45%): RBCs/erythrocytes (carry O2 via haemoglobin), WBCs/leukocytes (immunity/defence), and platelets/thrombocytes (blood clotting).

  33. Describe the double circulation of blood in humans.

    Double circulation means blood passes through the heart twice per complete cycle. Pulmonary circulation: deoxygenated blood goes from the right ventricle to the lungs and oxygenated blood returns to the left atrium. Systemic circulation: oxygenated blood goes from the left ventricle to body tissues and deoxygenated blood returns to the right atrium.

  34. What are nitrogenous excretory products, and classify animals as ammonotelic, ureotelic, and uricotelic.

    Ammonotelic animals excrete ammonia (most toxic, needs much water; e.g. bony fishes, aquatic amphibians). Ureotelic animals excrete urea (less toxic; e.g. mammals, many adult amphibians, marine fishes). Uricotelic animals excrete uric acid (least toxic, least water; e.g. reptiles, birds, insects, land snails).

  35. Name the structural and functional unit of the kidney and its main parts.

    The nephron is the structural and functional unit of the kidney (~1 million per kidney). Its parts are the Malpighian/renal corpuscle (glomerulus enclosed by Bowman's capsule) and the renal tubule (proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, leading to the collecting duct).

  36. List the three main steps of urine formation in the nephron.

    (1) Glomerular filtration (ultrafiltration of blood in the glomerulus/Bowman's capsule forming filtrate), (2) Reabsorption (selective reabsorption of useful substances like glucose, amino acids, water, ions in the tubules), and (3) Secretion (tubular secretion of H+, K+, NH3 into the filtrate to maintain ionic and acid-base balance).

  37. Differentiate the three types of muscle tissue (skeletal, smooth, cardiac).

    Skeletal (striated) muscle: striated, multinucleate, voluntary, attached to bones. Smooth (visceral) muscle: non-striated, spindle-shaped, uninucleate, involuntary, in walls of internal organs. Cardiac muscle: striated, branched, uninucleate, involuntary, found only in the heart, with intercalated discs.

  38. Name the proteins involved in muscle contraction and outline the sliding filament theory.

    The main proteins are actin (thin filament), myosin (thick filament), and the regulatory proteins troponin and tropomyosin. By the sliding filament theory, muscle contraction occurs when actin (thin) filaments slide over myosin (thick) filaments; cross-bridges form, the sarcomere shortens, the H-zone and I-band shrink, but the A-band length stays constant. It requires Ca2+ and ATP.

  39. Name the three types of skeletal joints (functional) with examples.

    Fibrous (immovable) joints, e.g. the sutures of the skull; Cartilaginous (slightly movable) joints, e.g. between adjacent vertebrae; and Synovial (freely movable) joints, e.g. ball-and-socket (shoulder, hip) and hinge (knee, elbow) joints.

  40. Describe the structure of a neuron and name its three parts.

    A neuron is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system. Its three parts are: the cell body/cyton (contains nucleus and cytoplasm with Nissl's granules), dendrites (short branched processes that receive impulses), and the axon (a single long process that transmits impulses away from the cell body, often myelinated).

  41. What is a resting membrane potential and an action potential in a neuron?

    The resting potential is the polarised state of a non-conducting axon membrane (~ -70 mV, with more Na+/positive outside and K+/negative inside, maintained by the Na+/K+ pump). An action potential (nerve impulse) is a transient reversal (depolarisation) of this potential when Na+ rushes in, followed by repolarisation as K+ moves out.

  42. How is a nerve impulse transmitted across a chemical synapse?

    At a chemical synapse, the arriving impulse triggers Ca2+ influx into the pre-synaptic axon terminal, causing synaptic vesicles to release neurotransmitters (e.g. acetylcholine) into the synaptic cleft. These bind to receptors on the post-synaptic membrane, opening ion channels and generating a new impulse in the post-synaptic neuron.

  43. Differentiate the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS).

    The CNS consists of the brain and spinal cord and is the site of information processing and control. The PNS consists of all the nerves (cranial and spinal) connecting the CNS to body parts; it has an afferent (sensory) division carrying impulses to the CNS and an efferent (motor) division carrying impulses from the CNS to effectors.

  44. Differentiate the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

    Both are divisions of the autonomic nervous system. The sympathetic system prepares the body for emergency 'fight or flight' responses (increases heart rate, dilates pupils, inhibits digestion). The parasympathetic system promotes 'rest and digest' activities (slows heart rate, constricts pupils, stimulates digestion) โ€” they are antagonistic.

  45. Name the major endocrine glands and one key hormone secreted by each.

    Hypothalamus (releasing hormones), Pituitary (GH, TSH, ACTH, etc.), Thyroid (thyroxine/T4, T3), Parathyroid (PTH), Adrenal (adrenaline, cortisol), Pancreas (insulin, glucagon), Pineal (melatonin), Thymus (thymosin), and Gonads โ€” testes (testosterone) and ovaries (estrogen, progesterone).

  46. What is the difference between endocrine and exocrine glands?

    Endocrine (ductless) glands secrete hormones directly into the blood, which act on distant target organs (e.g. thyroid, pituitary). Exocrine glands have ducts that carry their secretions (enzymes, sweat, saliva) to a specific site or surface (e.g. salivary glands, sweat glands). The pancreas is a mixed (heterocrine) gland.

  47. Compare the actions of insulin and glucagon in blood glucose regulation.

    Both are secreted by the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas. Insulin (from beta cells) lowers blood glucose by promoting cellular glucose uptake and glycogenesis (glucose โ†’ glycogen). Glucagon (from alpha cells) raises blood glucose by stimulating glycogenolysis (glycogen โ†’ glucose) and gluconeogenesis in the liver. They are antagonistic.

  48. Which hormones regulate calcium balance in the body and how?

    Parathyroid hormone (PTH) from the parathyroid glands raises blood calcium by stimulating bone resorption, increasing intestinal absorption (via vitamin D activation) and renal reabsorption. Calcitonin (from the thyroid) lowers blood calcium by suppressing bone resorption. They act antagonistically to maintain calcium homeostasis.

  49. What hormones does the thyroid gland produce and what is their main function?

    The thyroid gland produces thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which contain iodine and regulate the basal metabolic rate (BMR), growth, and development. It also secretes thyrocalcitonin (TCT/calcitonin) which lowers blood calcium. Iodine deficiency causes goitre and hypothyroidism.

  50. What is a reflex action and a reflex arc?

    A reflex action is a rapid, automatic, involuntary response to a stimulus, not requiring conscious thought (e.g. knee-jerk). The reflex arc is the neural pathway involved: receptor โ†’ afferent (sensory) neuron โ†’ CNS (spinal cord, with an interneuron) โ†’ efferent (motor) neuron โ†’ effector (muscle/gland).

  51. Name the three main parts of the human brain and a key function of each.

    Forebrain (cerebrum โ€” thinking, memory, intelligence, voluntary actions; plus thalamus and hypothalamus for homeostasis), Midbrain (controls visual and auditory reflexes), and Hindbrain (cerebellum โ€” balance and coordination; pons; medulla oblongata โ€” controls heartbeat, breathing, blood pressure).

  52. What are the five kingdoms in Whittaker's system of classification?

    R.H. Whittaker (1969) proposed five kingdoms: Monera (prokaryotes โ€” bacteria), Protista (single-celled eukaryotes), Fungi (heterotrophic, cell wall of chitin), Plantae (multicellular autotrophs โ€” plants), and Animalia (multicellular heterotrophs โ€” animals). The criteria included cell structure, body organisation, mode of nutrition, and phylogeny.

  53. What are guttation and transpiration, and how do they differ?

    Transpiration is the loss of water as vapour from the aerial parts (mainly stomata) of a plant. Guttation is the loss of water in liquid (droplet) form from the margins/tips of leaves through special pores called hydathodes, occurring due to root pressure when transpiration is low (e.g. early morning).

CBSE Class 11 Biology FAQ

What is in the CBSE Class 11 Biology syllabus?

CBSE Class 11 Biology is split into 5 chapters: Diversity in Living World, Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants, Cell Structure and Function, Plant Physiology and Human Physiology. Together they contain 24 topics.

How many chapters are in CBSE Class 11 Biology?

5 chapters, containing 24 topics. The largest chapter is Human Physiology, with 7 topics.

Are there flashcards for CBSE Class 11 Biology?

Yes โ€” a 73-card Biology deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.