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California Bar Examination Torts Syllabus

The Torts syllabus for California Bar Examination in full: 4 chapters, 18 topics and 24 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 50 Torts flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
18Topics
24Sub-topics
50Flashcards

Torts syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Intentional Torts and Defenses

    3 topics
    • Intentional Torts to the Person
      • Battery and assault
      • False imprisonment
      • Intentional infliction of emotional distress
    • Intentional Torts to Property
      • Trespass to land and chattels
      • Conversion
    • Defenses to Intentional Torts
      • Consent
      • Self-defense and defense of others
      • Defense of property and necessity
  2. Negligence

    5 topics
    • Duty of Care and Standard of Care
      • Reasonable person standard and special duties
      • Duties to invitees, licensees, and trespassers
      • Affirmative duties to act and special relationships
    • Breach
      • Negligence per se
      • Res ipsa loquitur
    • Actual and Proximate Causation
      • But-for and substantial factor tests
      • Foreseeability and intervening/superseding causes
    • Damages and the Eggshell Plaintiff
    • Defenses to Negligence
      • California pure comparative negligence
      • Assumption of risk
  3. Strict Liability and Products Liability

    4 topics
    • Abnormally Dangerous Activities
    • Liability for Animals
    • Products Liability Theories
      • Manufacturing defects
      • Design defects and the consumer expectation/risk-utility tests
      • Failure to warn
    • Defenses in Products Liability
  4. Other Torts and Vicarious Liability

    6 topics
    • Defamation
      • Libel and slander, slander per se
      • Constitutional limits and public figures
    • Invasion of Privacy
    • Misrepresentation and Fraud
    • Nuisance (Private and Public)
    • Vicarious Liability and Joint Tortfeasors
      • Respondeat superior
      • Joint and several liability and contribution
    • Wrongful Death and Survival Actions

California Bar Examination Torts flashcards — 50 questions with answers

  1. What are the elements of battery?

    (1) A volitional act by the defendant; (2) intent to cause a harmful or offensive contact (or imminent apprehension of it); (3) actual harmful or offensive contact with the plaintiff's person; and (4) causation. Contact is offensive if it would offend a reasonable person's sense of dignity. Includes contact with anything connected to the plaintiff (e.g., a held object).

  2. What are the elements of assault?

    (1) An act by the defendant creating a reasonable apprehension in the plaintiff (2) of an imminent harmful or offensive contact, (3) intent to cause that apprehension or the contact, and (4) causation. Words alone are usually insufficient; apparent present ability suffices, and the plaintiff must be aware of the threat.

  3. What are the elements of false imprisonment?

    (1) An act or omission by the defendant that confines or restrains the plaintiff to a bounded area, (2) intent to confine, (3) causation, and (4) the plaintiff is either aware of the confinement or harmed by it. There must be no reasonable means of escape; moral pressure or future threats are insufficient.

  4. What are the elements of intentional infliction of emotional distress (IIED)?

    (1) Extreme and outrageous conduct (beyond all bounds of decency); (2) intent to cause severe emotional distress or recklessness as to it; (3) causation; and (4) severe emotional distress. IIED is the only intentional tort to the person requiring actual damages (severe distress); no physical injury is required.

  5. What is the doctrine of transferred intent and to which torts does it apply?

    If a defendant intends to commit a tort against one person but instead injures another, or commits a different tort, the intent transfers. It applies among the five 'trespassory' torts: battery, assault, false imprisonment, trespass to land, and trespass to chattels. It does not apply to IIED or conversion.

  6. What are the elements of trespass to land?

    (1) Physical invasion of the plaintiff's real property (by a person or tangible object), and (2) intent to enter that land (intent to trespass is not required; mistake is no defense). No actual damages are required. Intangible invasions (noise, odor, light) are generally addressed through nuisance, not trespass.

  7. How does trespass to chattels differ from conversion?

    Both involve intentional interference with another's personal property. Trespass to chattels is a minor interference (slight damage or brief dispossession); damages equal the actual harm or rental value. Conversion is a serious interference so substantial it justifies requiring the defendant to pay full value; the remedy is the chattel's full market value (a forced sale).

  8. What is the measure of damages for conversion?

    The plaintiff recovers the full fair market value of the chattel at the time of the conversion, effectively a forced sale to the defendant. Alternatively, the plaintiff may seek replevin (return of the specific chattel). This contrasts with trespass to chattels, where recovery is limited to actual damages.

  9. How does consent operate as a defense to intentional torts, and what voids it?

    Valid consent (express or implied by custom/conduct) bars liability. Consent is invalid if obtained by fraud or duress, given by someone lacking capacity (minors, intoxicated, incompetent), or if the defendant exceeds the scope of consent. Consent to a criminal act is a defense in most jurisdictions.

  10. What are the rules for self-defense as a defense to intentional torts?

    A person may use reasonable force to defend against an imminent or actual threat. Force must be proportional; deadly force is permitted only when facing a threat of serious bodily harm or death. Many jurisdictions impose no duty to retreat (especially in one's home); the defense extends to reasonable mistakes about the threat.

  11. What force may be used in defense of property?

    Reasonable, non-deadly force may be used to prevent a tortious interference with property, after a request to desist (unless futile). Deadly force or deadly mechanical devices (e.g., spring guns) may never be used solely to protect property. The defense is not available against someone with a privilege (e.g., necessity).

  12. Compare public and private necessity as defenses.

    Public necessity (acting for the public good in an emergency) is an absolute/complete defense—no liability for resulting damage. Private necessity (acting to protect one's own interests) is a qualified defense: the actor is not liable for the trespass itself but must pay for any actual damage caused to the property.

  13. Under Palsgraf, who is a foreseeable plaintiff, and how do the Cardozo and Andrews views differ?

    A duty of care is owed only to foreseeable plaintiffs within the zone of danger. Cardozo (majority): duty runs only to those foreseeably endangered by the defendant's conduct. Andrews (dissent): a duty is owed to everyone if the defendant's conduct creates a risk to anyone, treating foreseeability as a proximate-cause question.

  14. What is the general standard of care in negligence?

    The reasonably prudent person under the same or similar circumstances—an objective standard. The defendant's own mental shortcomings or inexperience are not considered, but physical disabilities (e.g., blindness) are factored in, and superior knowledge/skill the defendant actually possesses is taken into account.

  15. What standards of care apply to children and to professionals?

    A child is held to the conduct of a reasonable child of like age, intelligence, and experience (a subjective standard)—except children engaged in adult/inherently dangerous activities, who are held to the adult standard. Professionals must exercise the knowledge and skill of an average member of their profession in good standing.

  16. When does a person have an affirmative duty to act or rescue?

    There is no general duty to act. Exceptions creating a duty: a special relationship (parent-child, common carrier-passenger, innkeeper-guest, employer-employee); the defendant created the peril; the defendant voluntarily undertook to act (must do so reasonably—Good Samaritan); or by contract or statute.

  17. What duties does a land possessor owe to trespassers, licensees, and invitees?

    Trespassers (unknown): no duty except to refrain from willful/wanton harm; known/anticipated trespassers: warn of hidden, artificial, highly dangerous conditions. Licensees (social guests): warn of known concealed dangers. Invitees (business/public visitors): duty to inspect and make safe, plus warn of known and reasonably discoverable dangers.

  18. What are the elements of negligence per se?

    A statute's standard replaces the common-law duty/breach when: (1) the plaintiff is within the class the statute was meant to protect, and (2) the harm is of the type the statute was meant to prevent. Violation establishes duty and breach (a presumption of negligence); plaintiff must still prove causation and damages. Excused violations may not apply.

  19. What constitutes a breach of duty in negligence?

    Breach occurs when the defendant's conduct falls below the applicable standard of care. The plaintiff must identify the specific wrongful conduct and show it was unreasonable, then prove the breach factually and legally caused the injury. Breach can be shown by custom, statute (negligence per se), or res ipsa loquitur.

  20. What is the Hand Formula for determining breach?

    Judge Learned Hand's formula: a defendant breaches when the burden of taking precautions (B) is less than the probability of harm (P) multiplied by the gravity of the loss (L)—i.e., breach if B < P × L. It is a cost-benefit analysis of whether reasonable care required the untaken precaution.

Show the other 30 Torts flashcards
  1. What are the elements of res ipsa loquitur and its effect?

    Allows an inference of breach when: (1) the accident is of a type that ordinarily does not occur absent negligence, and (2) the instrumentality was within the defendant's exclusive control (and the plaintiff did not contribute). Effect: establishes a permissible inference of negligence, defeating a directed verdict for the defendant.

  2. What is the test for actual (factual) cause?

    The 'but-for' test: the injury would not have occurred but for the defendant's conduct. The defendant's act must be a necessary condition of the harm. When the but-for test fails due to multiple sufficient causes, courts apply the substantial factor test instead.

  3. How is actual cause proven with multiple defendants or concurrent causes?

    Substantial factor test: where two or more causes combine and each alone would have caused the harm, each is a cause if it was a substantial factor. Alternative liability (Summers v. Tice): when two defendants are negligent but only one caused the harm, the burden shifts to each to prove they did not cause it.

  4. What is proximate (legal) cause?

    A limitation on liability for unforeseeable consequences. The defendant is liable only for harms that are the foreseeable result of the risk created (within the scope of the risk). Direct-cause cases generally find proximate cause unless the result is highly extraordinary; indirect cases turn on foreseeability of intervening forces and results.

  5. Distinguish an intervening cause from a superseding cause.

    An intervening cause arises after the defendant's act and contributes to the harm; if foreseeable (e.g., ordinary negligence, rescue, medical malpractice), it does not break the causal chain. A superseding cause is an unforeseeable intervening force (e.g., intentional crimes, acts of God) that breaks the chain and cuts off the defendant's liability.

  6. What types of compensatory damages are recoverable in a negligence action?

    The plaintiff may recover for past and future medical expenses, lost earnings and lost earning capacity, and pain and suffering (including emotional distress). Damages must be proven with reasonable certainty (not speculative) and must be causally linked to the injury. Personal-injury damages are generally not reduced to present value for past losses but future losses are.

  7. What is the eggshell (thin-skull) plaintiff rule?

    The defendant takes the plaintiff as he finds him: once liability is established, the defendant is liable for the full extent of harm even if the plaintiff's pre-existing condition or unusual vulnerability made the injury far greater than foreseeable. The extent of damages need not be foreseeable—only some harm must be.

  8. When are punitive damages available in tort, and what is the constitutional limit?

    Punitive damages require conduct that is willful, wanton, malicious, or in reckless disregard of others' rights—not mere negligence. They punish and deter. Due process limits the ratio of punitive to compensatory damages; the Supreme Court has indicated single-digit ratios are generally the constitutional ceiling.

  9. What is the duty to mitigate (avoidable consequences) in tort?

    A plaintiff cannot recover for damages that could have been avoided through reasonable effort (e.g., seeking medical treatment). Damages attributable to the plaintiff's failure to mitigate are not recoverable. In comparative-fault jurisdictions, failure to mitigate may instead reduce recovery proportionally.

  10. What is contributory negligence and its effect?

    A plaintiff's own failure to exercise reasonable care for his own safety. In the few pure contributory-negligence jurisdictions, it is a complete bar to recovery—any plaintiff fault, however slight, defeats the claim (subject to the last clear chance doctrine). Most states have replaced it with comparative negligence.

  11. Distinguish pure from modified comparative negligence.

    Pure comparative: the plaintiff recovers damages reduced by his own percentage of fault, even if 99% at fault. Modified comparative: the plaintiff recovers (reduced by fault) only if his fault is below the threshold—either 'not greater than 50%' or 'less than 50%' depending on the state; at/above it, recovery is barred. California follows pure comparative negligence.

  12. What are express and implied assumption of risk?

    Express assumption: the plaintiff agrees in advance (often by contract/waiver) to relieve the defendant of a duty; bars recovery unless the waiver is void (gross negligence, public interest, unconscionable). Implied assumption: the plaintiff voluntarily and knowingly encounters a known risk; in comparative-fault states it is often merged into the comparative analysis.

  13. What is the last clear chance doctrine?

    A plaintiff's rebuttal to contributory negligence: even if the plaintiff was negligent, the defendant is liable if the defendant had the last clear chance to avoid the harm but failed to do so. It applies in contributory-negligence jurisdictions; comparative-negligence states have largely abolished it.

  14. What activities trigger strict liability as abnormally dangerous, and what factors are considered?

    An activity is abnormally dangerous if it creates a foreseeable, highly significant risk that cannot be eliminated by reasonable care and is not a matter of common usage (e.g., blasting, toxic chemicals, explosives). The defendant is strictly liable for harm flowing from that risk regardless of precautions taken. Liability is limited to harm within the kind of risk that makes the activity dangerous.

  15. What is the rule for strict liability for wild animals?

    An owner/possessor of a wild animal (non-domesticated) is strictly liable for harm caused by the animal's dangerous propensities characteristic of that species (or known to the owner), even with utmost care. Strict liability does not extend to injuries unrelated to the animal's dangerous nature, and licensees/invitees—but not trespassers—are generally protected.

  16. What is the rule for liability for domestic animals (the 'one-bite' rule)?

    An owner of a domestic animal is liable for harm only if the owner knew or had reason to know of the animal's dangerous/vicious propensities abnormal for its class (knowledge often shown by a prior incident—the 'one-bite' rule). Absent such knowledge, liability requires negligence. Many jurisdictions impose strict liability for dog bites by statute.

  17. What are the elements of a strict products liability claim?

    (1) The defendant is a commercial supplier (manufacturer, distributor, retailer); (2) the product was defective when it left the defendant's control; (3) the defect existed without substantial alteration; (4) the defect caused the plaintiff's injury (actual and proximate cause); and (5) damages. Privity is not required; foreseeable users/bystanders may recover.

  18. What are the three types of product defects?

    (1) Manufacturing defect—the product departs from its intended design (one bad unit); (2) Design defect—the entire product line is unreasonably dangerous as designed; and (3) Warning/marketing defect—failure to provide adequate warnings or instructions about non-obvious dangers. Each can support strict liability.

  19. What are the two tests for a design defect?

    (1) Consumer-expectation test: the product is defective if it is more dangerous than an ordinary consumer would expect. (2) Risk-utility test: the product is defective if its risks outweigh its utility AND a reasonable alternative design existed that was economically and technologically feasible. Many jurisdictions require proof of a feasible alternative design.

  20. What implied warranties protect product purchasers, and what do they cover?

    Implied warranty of merchantability: goods sold by a merchant are fit for their ordinary purpose. Implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose: when the seller knows the buyer's special purpose and the buyer relies on the seller's skill, the goods must fit that purpose. Breach is a no-fault claim; defenses include disclaimers, limitations, and notice requirements.

  21. What defenses apply in products liability actions?

    Comparative/contributory fault (depending on jurisdiction), assumption of risk, and product misuse that is unforeseeable. Foreseeable misuse does not bar recovery. In strict-liability claims, ordinary contributory negligence (mere failure to discover the defect) is generally not a defense, but knowingly using a defective product is. The state-of-the-art defense may apply to design/warning claims.

  22. What are the elements of defamation?

    (1) A defamatory statement (one that harms reputation); (2) of or concerning the plaintiff; (3) publication to a third party (intentionally or negligently); (4) damages to reputation; and (5) for matters of public concern, fault (negligence or actual malice) and falsity. The statement must be a false assertion of fact, not pure opinion.

  23. Distinguish libel from slander, and identify the slander per se categories.

    Libel is defamation in permanent/written form; general damages are presumed. Slander is spoken defamation requiring proof of special (pecuniary) damages—unless it is slander per se. Slander per se categories (damages presumed): statements imputing (1) a serious crime, (2) a loathsome disease, (3) unfitness for one's business/profession, or (4) sexual misconduct/unchastity.

  24. What constitutional fault standards apply to defamation (NYT v. Sullivan and Gertz)?

    Public officials/public figures must prove 'actual malice'—knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard for the truth (a subjective standard), and must also prove falsity. Private figures suing on matters of public concern need only prove negligence as to falsity to recover actual damages; actual malice is required for presumed or punitive damages.

  25. What are the four invasion-of-privacy torts?

    (1) Appropriation of the plaintiff's name or likeness for commercial advantage; (2) Intrusion upon seclusion (highly offensive to a reasonable person); (3) Public disclosure of private facts (highly offensive, not of legitimate public concern); and (4) False light (publicly attributing false views/conduct, highly offensive). Truth is no defense to intrusion or appropriation; the latter two require publicity.

  26. What are the elements of intentional misrepresentation (fraud/deceit)?

    (1) A false representation of a material fact; (2) scienter (knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard); (3) intent to induce reliance; (4) actual and justifiable reliance by the plaintiff; and (5) damages. Negligent misrepresentation, by contrast, requires only negligence as to truth and is generally limited to commercial settings with known/foreseeable plaintiffs.

  27. Distinguish private nuisance from public nuisance.

    Private nuisance: a substantial and unreasonable interference with another's use and enjoyment of land; recovery requires the plaintiff have a possessory interest. Public nuisance: an unreasonable interference with a right common to the general public; a private plaintiff may sue only by showing harm different in kind from that suffered by the public.

  28. What is vicarious liability under respondeat superior, and how are independent contractors treated?

    An employer is vicariously liable for torts committed by an employee within the scope of employment (including minor 'frolic/detour' deviations, but not major frolics or generally intentional torts unless job-related). A hiring party is generally NOT liable for an independent contractor's torts—except for non-delegable duties or inherently dangerous activities.

  29. How does joint and several liability work, with contribution and indemnity?

    Under joint and several liability, each of multiple tortfeasors causing a single indivisible injury is liable for the entire judgment; the plaintiff may collect the full amount from any one. Contribution lets a tortfeasor who pays more than its share recover the excess from others (often by comparative fault). Indemnity shifts the entire loss to a more culpable party (e.g., manufacturer to retailer).

  30. Distinguish a wrongful death action from a survival action.

    A wrongful death action is brought by the decedent's beneficiaries/estate to recover for THEIR losses from the death (loss of support, companionship, consortium). A survival action is brought by the estate for the claims the decedent could have brought had he lived (the decedent's own pre-death pain, suffering, and economic losses); it 'survives' the victim's death.

California Bar Examination Torts FAQ

What is in the California Bar Examination Torts syllabus?

California Bar Examination Torts is split into 4 chapters: Intentional Torts and Defenses, Negligence, Strict Liability and Products Liability and Other Torts and Vicarious Liability. Together they contain 18 topics and 24 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in California Bar Examination Torts?

4 chapters, containing 18 topics and 24 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Other Torts and Vicarious Liability, with 6 topics.

Are there flashcards for California Bar Examination Torts?

Yes — a 50-card Torts deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.