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CA Final PAPER 6: INTEGRATED BUSINESS SOLUTIONS Syllabus

The PAPER 6: INTEGRATED BUSINESS SOLUTIONS syllabus for CA Final in full: 1 chapter and 7 topics, every one listed below, plus 50 PAPER 6: INTEGRATED BUSINESS SOLUTIONS flashcards with answers.

1Chapters
7Topics
50Flashcards

PAPER 6: INTEGRATED BUSINESS SOLUTIONS syllabus: 1 chapter, 7 topics

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Case study based on:

    7 topics
    • Financial Reporting
    • Advanced Financial Management
    • Advanced Auditing, Assurance and Professional Ethics
    • Direct Tax Laws & International Taxation
    • Indirect Tax Laws
    • Corporate and Economic Laws
    • Strategic Cost & Performance Management

CA Final PAPER 6: INTEGRATED BUSINESS SOLUTIONS flashcards — 50 questions with answers

  1. In Ind AS 113, what is the order of the fair value hierarchy from most to least reliable?

    Level 1 (quoted prices in active markets for identical assets), Level 2 (observable inputs other than Level 1), Level 3 (unobservable inputs).

  2. Under Ind AS 116, how does a lessee initially measure the right-of-use asset?

    At cost = initial lease liability + lease payments made at/before commencement (less incentives) + initial direct costs + estimated dismantling/restoration costs.

  3. What are the three elements that must coexist for an arrangement to be a business combination under Ind AS 103?

    An acquirer obtaining control, of a business (inputs + processes producing outputs), accounted for by the acquisition method.

  4. State the five-step revenue recognition model under Ind AS 115.

    1) Identify the contract; 2) Identify performance obligations; 3) Determine transaction price; 4) Allocate price to obligations; 5) Recognise revenue as/when obligations are satisfied.

  5. Under Ind AS 36, how is an asset's recoverable amount determined?

    The higher of (a) fair value less costs of disposal and (b) value in use (present value of expected future cash flows).

  6. How does Ind AS 109 classify financial assets, and what drives the classification?

    Into Amortised Cost, FVOCI, or FVTPL — based on the business model for managing the asset and the contractual cash flow (SPPI) characteristics.

  7. What is the formula for Basic Earnings Per Share under Ind AS 33?

    Basic EPS = (Net profit attributable to equity holders − preference dividends) ÷ Weighted average number of equity shares outstanding.

  8. Define a 'contingent liability' under Ind AS 37.

    A possible obligation from past events confirmed by uncertain future events not wholly in the entity's control, OR a present obligation not recognised because outflow is not probable or amount cannot be reliably measured; it is disclosed, not provided.

  9. In a business combination, how is goodwill computed under Ind AS 103?

    Goodwill = (Consideration transferred + non-controlling interest + fair value of previously held interest) − fair value of identifiable net assets acquired.

  10. What is the Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) formula?

    WACC = (E/V × Ke) + (D/V × Kd × (1−t)), where E=equity, D=debt, V=E+D, Ke=cost of equity, Kd=cost of debt, t=tax rate.

  11. State the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) equation for cost of equity.

    Ke = Rf + β × (Rm − Rf), where Rf=risk-free rate, β=beta, (Rm−Rf)=market risk premium.

  12. What does the Dividend Discount Model (Gordon Growth) value a share at?

    P0 = D1 ÷ (Ke − g), where D1=next year's dividend, Ke=cost of equity, g=constant growth rate.

  13. In options, define 'intrinsic value' versus 'time value'.

    Intrinsic value = the in-the-money amount (max of zero and exercisable gain). Time value = option premium − intrinsic value, reflecting time to expiry and volatility.

  14. What is the put-call parity relationship for European options?

    C + PV(K) = P + S, i.e., Call price + present value of strike = Put price + spot price (same strike & expiry).

  15. Define the Sharpe Ratio and what it measures.

    Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio return − Risk-free rate) ÷ Standard deviation of portfolio. It measures excess return per unit of total risk.

  16. What is the Treynor Ratio and how does it differ from Sharpe?

    Treynor = (Portfolio return − Risk-free rate) ÷ Beta. It measures excess return per unit of systematic (market) risk, whereas Sharpe uses total risk (SD).

  17. Define duration of a bond and what it indicates.

    Duration is the weighted average time to receive a bond's cash flows; it measures the bond's price sensitivity to interest rate changes (interest-rate risk).

  18. What is the formula for the Money Market Hedge to cover a foreign currency payable?

    Invest the present value of the payable (at the foreign rate) today by borrowing domestic currency at spot, so the matured foreign investment settles the payable — locking in the cost.

  19. State Interest Rate Parity (IRP) for forward exchange rates.

    Forward rate = Spot × (1 + domestic interest rate) ÷ (1 + foreign interest rate). Currency with higher interest rate trades at a forward discount.

  20. What is Economic Value Added (EVA)?

    EVA = NOPAT − (Capital Employed × WACC). It measures value created above the cost of capital.

Show the other 30 PAPER 6: INTEGRATED BUSINESS SOLUTIONS flashcards
  1. List the four levels of management's audit assertions tested for transactions.

    Occurrence, Completeness, Accuracy, Cutoff, and Classification (assertions about classes of transactions).

  2. Under SA 700, name the four types of audit opinions.

    Unmodified (clean), Qualified, Adverse, and Disclaimer of opinion.

  3. When does an auditor issue an Adverse opinion versus a Disclaimer?

    Adverse: misstatements are both material and pervasive. Disclaimer: auditor cannot obtain sufficient appropriate evidence and possible effects are material and pervasive.

  4. What is the relationship between audit risk, inherent risk, control risk, and detection risk?

    Audit Risk = Inherent Risk × Control Risk × Detection Risk. Detection risk is set inversely to assessed risk of material misstatement (IR × CR).

  5. Per SA 240, who is primarily responsible for the prevention and detection of fraud?

    Those charged with governance and management of the entity; the auditor's responsibility is to obtain reasonable assurance that financial statements are free from material misstatement due to fraud or error.

  6. Distinguish a 'Key Audit Matter' (SA 701) from an 'Emphasis of Matter' (SA 706).

    KAMs are matters of most significance in the audit, selected from those communicated to TCWG (does not modify opinion). EOM draws attention to a matter already disclosed in the financial statements that is fundamental to users' understanding.

  7. State the five fundamental principles of the ICAI Code of Ethics for professional accountants.

    Integrity, Objectivity, Professional Competence and Due Care, Confidentiality, and Professional Behaviour.

  8. What are the five categories of threats to auditor independence under the Code of Ethics?

    Self-interest, Self-review, Advocacy, Familiarity, and Intimidation threats.

  9. Under SA 320, what is 'performance materiality'?

    An amount set lower than overall materiality to reduce, to an appropriately low level, the probability that the aggregate of uncorrected and undetected misstatements exceeds materiality.

  10. For a resident individual in India, how is global income treated under the Income-tax Act?

    A Resident and Ordinarily Resident is taxed on global (worldwide) income; a Non-Resident is taxed only on income received or accruing/arising in India.

  11. Under section 6, what are the basic conditions to be a 'resident' individual in India?

    In India for 182 days or more in the previous year, OR 60 days or more in the PY and 365 days or more in the four preceding PYs.

  12. What is the purpose of Transfer Pricing provisions (sections 92 to 92F)?

    To ensure international (and specified domestic) transactions between associated enterprises are at arm's length price, preventing profit shifting and tax base erosion.

  13. Name the methods prescribed for computing Arm's Length Price under Indian transfer pricing.

    CUP (Comparable Uncontrolled Price), Resale Price Method, Cost Plus Method, Profit Split Method, Transactional Net Margin Method (TNMM), and any other prescribed method.

  14. What is a Permanent Establishment (PE) and why does it matter in international taxation?

    A fixed place of business through which an enterprise's business is wholly/partly carried on; it determines whether a source country can tax a non-resident's business profits under a tax treaty.

  15. What relief does section 90 provide for double taxation?

    Relief where India has a DTAA with the other country, applying either the exemption or credit method as per the treaty (taxpayer may apply the more beneficial of treaty or Act).

  16. Under GST, what is the difference between a 'composite supply' and a 'mixed supply'?

    Composite supply: naturally bundled supplies with one principal supply — taxed at the principal supply's rate. Mixed supply: two or more independent supplies for a single price — taxed at the highest applicable rate.

  17. What is the GST treatment of an inter-State supply versus an intra-State supply?

    Inter-State supply attracts IGST; intra-State supply attracts CGST + SGST/UTGST.

  18. State the order of utilisation of Input Tax Credit under GST.

    IGST credit first set off against IGST, then CGST and SGST in any order; CGST credit against CGST then IGST; SGST credit against SGST then IGST. CGST and SGST cannot be cross-utilised.

  19. What is the 'time of supply' of goods under GST (forward charge)?

    The earlier of the date of issue of invoice (or the last date it should be issued) and the date of receipt of payment.

  20. Under GST, when is Reverse Charge Mechanism (RCM) applicable?

    When the recipient (instead of the supplier) is liable to pay GST — for notified goods/services, supplies from unregistered to registered persons (notified cases), and import of services.

  21. What is the threshold for compulsory GST registration for goods suppliers (normal category states)?

    Aggregate turnover exceeding Rs. 40 lakh for exclusive goods suppliers (Rs. 20 lakh for services / special category states), subject to notified exceptions.

  22. Under the Companies Act 2013, what is the minimum and maximum number of directors for a public company?

    Minimum 3 directors and maximum 15 directors (more than 15 allowed by passing a special resolution).

  23. What majority is required to pass a special resolution under the Companies Act 2013?

    Votes cast in favour must be at least three times the votes cast against (i.e., not less than 75%), with notice of intention to propose it as a special resolution duly given.

  24. Under the Companies Act 2013, which companies must constitute a CSR Committee and spend on CSR?

    Companies with net worth ≥ Rs. 500 crore, OR turnover ≥ Rs. 1,000 crore, OR net profit ≥ Rs. 5 crore in the immediately preceding financial year; spend 2% of average net profits of preceding 3 years.

  25. What is the doctrine of 'ultra vires' in company law?

    Acts done by a company beyond the powers conferred by its Memorandum of Association are void and cannot be ratified even by all shareholders.

  26. Under FEMA, distinguish a Capital Account Transaction from a Current Account Transaction.

    Capital account transactions alter assets/liabilities (incl. contingent) outside/inside India of residents/non-residents. Current account transactions are all others (e.g., trade, travel, interest) and are generally permitted unless restricted.

  27. In Strategic Cost Management, distinguish Target Costing from Standard Costing.

    Target costing works backward from a market-driven price minus desired profit to set an allowable cost during design (market-led). Standard costing sets predetermined costs and compares with actuals via variances during production.

  28. What are the four perspectives of the Balanced Scorecard?

    Financial, Customer, Internal Business Processes, and Learning & Growth.

  29. How is the Material Cost Variance decomposed?

    Material Cost Variance = Material Price Variance + Material Usage Variance, where Price Variance = (Std price − Actual price) × Actual qty and Usage Variance = (Std qty − Actual qty) × Std price.

  30. What is the Throughput Accounting Ratio in the Theory of Constraints?

    TA Ratio = Throughput per unit of bottleneck resource ÷ Operating (factory) cost per unit of bottleneck resource; a ratio above 1 indicates the product is profitable.

CA Final PAPER 6: INTEGRATED BUSINESS SOLUTIONS FAQ

What is in the CA Final PAPER 6: INTEGRATED BUSINESS SOLUTIONS syllabus?

CA Final PAPER 6: INTEGRATED BUSINESS SOLUTIONS is split into 1 chapter: Case study based on. Together they contain 7 topics.

How many chapters are in CA Final PAPER 6: INTEGRATED BUSINESS SOLUTIONS?

1 chapter, containing 7 topics.

Are there flashcards for CA Final PAPER 6: INTEGRATED BUSINESS SOLUTIONS?

Yes — a 50-card PAPER 6: INTEGRATED BUSINESS SOLUTIONS deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.