🇮🇳 AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate · subject

AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate Networking & Content Delivery Syllabus

The Networking & Content Delivery syllabus for AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate in full: 3 chapters, 12 topics and 13 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 60 Networking & Content Delivery flashcards with answers.

3Chapters
12Topics
13Sub-topics
60Flashcards

Networking & Content Delivery syllabus: all 3 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. Amazon VPC Core

    5 topics
    • VPC, subnets and CIDR planning
      • Public vs private subnets
      • IPv4 and IPv6 addressing
    • Route tables, Internet Gateway and egress-only IGW
    • NAT Gateway and NAT Instance
    • Network security controls
      • Security Groups (stateful)
      • Network ACLs (stateless)
    • VPC Flow Logs
  2. VPC Connectivity & Hybrid Networking

    4 topics
    • VPC Peering and Transit Gateway
    • VPC Endpoints
      • Gateway endpoints (S3, DynamoDB)
      • Interface endpoints and PrivateLink
    • Hybrid connectivity
      • Site-to-Site VPN
      • AWS Direct Connect and Direct Connect Gateway
    • AWS Client VPN
  3. DNS, Routing & Content Delivery

    3 topics
    • Amazon Route 53
      • Hosted zones and record types
      • Routing policies (simple, weighted, latency, failover, geolocation, geoproximity, multivalue)
      • Health checks and DNS failover
    • Amazon CloudFront
      • Origins, behaviors and cache policies
      • Origin Access Control and signed URLs/cookies
    • AWS Global Accelerator

AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate Networking & Content Delivery flashcards — 60 questions with answers

  1. What is an Amazon VPC?

    A logically isolated virtual network within an AWS Region where you launch resources. It spans all Availability Zones in that Region and gives you control over IP addressing, subnets, route tables, and gateways.

  2. What are the allowed size limits for a VPC IPv4 CIDR block?

    The CIDR netmask must be between /16 (65,536 addresses) and /28 (16 addresses).

  3. How many IP addresses in each subnet are reserved by AWS, and what is the usable count?

    AWS reserves 5 addresses per subnet (the first 4 and the last). So a /24 subnet (256 addresses) has 251 usable addresses.

  4. What are the 5 reserved addresses in a VPC subnet (for a 10.0.0.0/24 example)?

    .0 = network address, .1 = VPC router, .2 = DNS (Amazon-provided/base+2), .3 = reserved for future use, .255 = network broadcast address (broadcast not supported but reserved).

  5. Can a subnet span multiple Availability Zones?

    No. A subnet resides entirely within a single Availability Zone. A VPC spans all AZs in the Region, but each subnet maps to exactly one AZ.

  6. What distinguishes a public subnet from a private subnet?

    A public subnet has a route table with a route (0.0.0.0/0) pointing to an Internet Gateway. A private subnet has no direct route to the IGW.

  7. What does CIDR notation /20 represent in terms of host addresses?

    /20 leaves 12 host bits, giving 2^12 = 4,096 IP addresses (4,091 usable in a VPC subnet).

  8. Can the CIDR blocks of two subnets in the same VPC overlap?

    No. Subnet CIDR blocks within a VPC must not overlap with each other.

  9. What is an Internet Gateway (IGW) and what are its two functions?

    A horizontally scaled, redundant, highly available VPC component that allows communication between the VPC and the internet. It performs (1) routing for internet-bound traffic and (2) NAT for instances with public IPv4 addresses.

  10. What is required for an EC2 instance to reach the internet via an IGW?

    The instance needs a public IPv4 (or Elastic IP) address, the subnet's route table must route 0.0.0.0/0 to the IGW, and security groups/NACLs must permit the traffic.

  11. What is an egress-only Internet Gateway and when is it used?

    An IPv6-only gateway that allows outbound IPv6 traffic from the VPC to the internet while preventing inbound IPv6 connections initiated from the internet. It is the IPv6 equivalent of a NAT Gateway (since IPv6 addresses are public/globally routable).

  12. Why can't you use a NAT Gateway for IPv6 outbound-only access?

    NAT is a concept for IPv4 (translating private to public addresses). IPv6 addresses are globally unique/public, so AWS provides the egress-only Internet Gateway instead to allow outbound-only IPv6 traffic.

  13. What is the purpose of a NAT Gateway?

    It enables instances in a private subnet to initiate outbound connections to the internet (or other AWS services) while preventing the internet from initiating inbound connections to those instances.

  14. Where must a NAT Gateway be placed and what does it require?

    In a public subnet, and it requires an Elastic IP address. Private subnet route tables then point 0.0.0.0/0 to the NAT Gateway.

  15. Compare NAT Gateway vs NAT Instance on availability and management.

    NAT Gateway is AWS-managed, highly available within an AZ, auto-scales bandwidth (up to 100 Gbps), and needs no patching. A NAT Instance is a self-managed EC2 instance you must size, patch, and make HA yourself.

  16. How do you make a NAT Gateway architecture highly available across AZs?

    Deploy a separate NAT Gateway in each Availability Zone and configure each AZ's private subnet route table to use the NAT Gateway in its own AZ. This avoids cross-AZ dependency and charges.

  17. What is one capability a NAT Instance has that a NAT Gateway does not?

    A NAT Instance can be used as a bastion host, can support port forwarding, and can have security groups applied to it. A NAT Gateway cannot use security groups and cannot be a bastion host.

  18. What setting must be disabled on a NAT Instance for it to forward traffic?

    The Source/Destination Check must be disabled, because the instance forwards traffic that is not addressed to itself.

  19. What is a Security Group in a VPC?

    A stateful virtual firewall applied at the instance/ENI level that controls inbound and outbound traffic. It supports allow rules only.

  20. What does it mean that Security Groups are stateful?

    If inbound traffic is allowed, the response (return) traffic is automatically allowed regardless of outbound rules, and vice versa. You don't need explicit rules for return traffic.

Show the other 40 Networking & Content Delivery flashcards
  1. What is a Network ACL (NACL) and at what level does it operate?

    A stateless firewall that operates at the subnet level, controlling inbound and outbound traffic with both allow and deny rules, evaluated by rule number in order.

  2. Why are NACLs called stateless?

    Return traffic is not automatically allowed; you must create explicit rules for both inbound and outbound directions (including ephemeral ports for responses).

  3. How are conflicting rules resolved in a NACL?

    Rules are evaluated in ascending order by rule number; the first matching rule is applied and evaluation stops. Lower-numbered rules take precedence.

  4. Compare Security Groups vs NACLs in three key dimensions.

    Security Group: instance/ENI level, stateful, allow rules only, all rules evaluated. NACL: subnet level, stateless, allow and deny rules, evaluated in order by rule number.

  5. What is the default behavior of the default Security Group vs the default NACL?

    Default Security Group: denies all inbound, allows all outbound (and allows traffic between members). Default NACL: allows all inbound and all outbound traffic.

  6. What are VPC Flow Logs?

    A feature that captures information about the IP traffic going to and from network interfaces in your VPC, for monitoring, troubleshooting, and security analysis.

  7. At what three levels can VPC Flow Logs be enabled?

    At the VPC level, the subnet level, or the individual network interface (ENI) level.

  8. Where can VPC Flow Logs be published?

    To Amazon CloudWatch Logs, an Amazon S3 bucket, or Amazon Data Firehose (Kinesis Data Firehose).

  9. Do VPC Flow Logs capture packet contents?

    No. Flow Logs capture metadata about traffic (source/dest IP, ports, protocol, bytes, action ACCEPT/REJECT) but not the actual packet payload.

  10. What is VPC Peering?

    A networking connection between two VPCs that lets them route traffic privately using private IP addresses as if they were on the same network.

  11. What is a key limitation of VPC Peering regarding transitivity?

    VPC Peering is NOT transitive. If A is peered with B and B with C, A cannot reach C through B. Each pair needs its own direct peering connection.

  12. Can you create a VPC Peering connection between VPCs with overlapping CIDR blocks?

    No. The VPCs must have non-overlapping CIDR blocks to be peered.

  13. What is AWS Transit Gateway?

    A regional network transit hub that connects VPCs and on-premises networks through a central gateway, using a hub-and-spoke model to simplify connectivity and avoid complex peering meshes.

  14. What advantage does Transit Gateway have over VPC Peering for many VPCs?

    Transit Gateway supports transitive routing through a single hub, scaling to thousands of VPCs without a full mesh of peering connections, and supports route tables for segmentation.

  15. Does Transit Gateway support cross-Region connectivity?

    Yes, via Transit Gateway peering, which can connect Transit Gateways in different Regions (traffic stays on the AWS backbone and is encrypted).

  16. What is a VPC Endpoint and what problem does it solve?

    It enables private connectivity from your VPC to supported AWS services without traversing the internet, NAT Gateway, or IGW, keeping traffic on the AWS network.

  17. What is the difference between a Gateway Endpoint and an Interface Endpoint?

    A Gateway Endpoint adds a route to your route table (target = the service) and is only for S3 and DynamoDB, with no charge. An Interface Endpoint (powered by AWS PrivateLink) creates an ENI with a private IP in your subnet, works for most AWS services, and incurs hourly + data charges.

  18. Which two AWS services use Gateway VPC Endpoints?

    Amazon S3 and Amazon DynamoDB.

  19. What technology powers Interface VPC Endpoints?

    AWS PrivateLink, which provisions an Elastic Network Interface (ENI) with a private IP address as the entry point to the service.

  20. What are the main options for hybrid connectivity between on-premises and AWS?

    AWS Site-to-Site VPN (IPsec over the internet) and AWS Direct Connect (dedicated private physical connection).

  21. Compare AWS Direct Connect vs Site-to-Site VPN.

    Direct Connect = dedicated private physical link, consistent low latency/high bandwidth, not encrypted by default, longer to provision. Site-to-Site VPN = encrypted IPsec tunnel over the public internet, quick to set up, lower cost, variable latency.

  22. How do you add encryption to a Direct Connect connection?

    Run a Site-to-Site VPN over the Direct Connect connection (combining private connectivity with IPsec encryption), or use MACsec on supported DX connections.

  23. How many tunnels does an AWS Site-to-Site VPN connection provide and why?

    Two tunnels, terminating in different AWS endpoints/AZs, to provide redundancy and high availability for the connection.

  24. What is the typical solution to keep a backup path if Direct Connect fails?

    Configure a Site-to-Site VPN as a backup/failover connection to maintain connectivity if the Direct Connect link goes down.

  25. What is AWS Client VPN?

    A managed, client-based VPN service that lets users securely access AWS resources and on-premises networks from any location using an OpenVPN-based client.

  26. What authentication methods does AWS Client VPN support?

    Active Directory authentication, mutual (certificate-based) authentication, and federated/SAML-based (SSO) authentication.

  27. How does Client VPN differ from Site-to-Site VPN?

    Client VPN connects individual remote users/devices to AWS (remote access VPN), while Site-to-Site VPN connects an entire network/data center to AWS (network-to-network).

  28. What is Amazon Route 53?

    A highly available and scalable DNS web service that also provides domain registration and health checking, with the '53' referring to DNS port 53.

  29. What is the difference between an A record, AAAA record, and CNAME in Route 53?

    A record maps a name to an IPv4 address; AAAA maps a name to an IPv6 address; CNAME maps a name to another domain name (cannot be used for the zone apex/root).

  30. What is a Route 53 Alias record and how does it differ from a CNAME?

    An Alias record maps a name to an AWS resource (ELB, CloudFront, S3 website, etc.). Unlike a CNAME, it works at the zone apex (root domain), is free for AWS resource queries, and resolves natively to the target.

  31. List the Route 53 routing policies.

    Simple, Weighted, Latency-based, Failover, Geolocation, Geoproximity, Multivalue answer, and IP-based routing.

  32. When would you use Route 53 Latency-based routing vs Geolocation routing?

    Latency-based routes users to the Region with the lowest network latency for best performance. Geolocation routes based on the user's physical location (for content localization, compliance, or licensing).

  33. What is Route 53 Failover routing combined with health checks used for?

    Active-passive disaster recovery: traffic goes to the primary resource while healthy and automatically fails over to a secondary resource when the health check on the primary fails.

  34. What is Amazon CloudFront?

    A global Content Delivery Network (CDN) that caches content at edge locations close to users to reduce latency and improve delivery of static and dynamic content.

  35. What is an Origin in CloudFront, and what types are supported?

    The source of the content CloudFront distributes. Origins include S3 buckets, MediaStore/MediaPackage, EC2/ALB or any custom HTTP origin (custom origin).

  36. What is Origin Access Control (OAC) in CloudFront?

    A feature that restricts direct access to an S3 origin so content is only reachable through CloudFront, replacing the older Origin Access Identity (OAI).

  37. What is the difference between CloudFront and Global Accelerator at the network layer?

    CloudFront caches and serves HTTP/HTTPS content at edge locations (Layer 7, content delivery). Global Accelerator routes TCP/UDP traffic over the AWS backbone using anycast static IPs (Layer 4, no caching), improving performance for non-cacheable/global apps.

  38. What is AWS Global Accelerator?

    A networking service that provides two static anycast IP addresses as a fixed entry point and routes user traffic over the AWS global backbone to the optimal application endpoint for improved performance and availability.

  39. What two static IP addresses does Global Accelerator provide and why are they useful?

    Two static anycast IPs that serve as a fixed front door to your application. They don't change, simplifying allow-listing and DNS, while traffic is routed to the nearest healthy endpoint.

  40. How does Global Accelerator improve availability during regional failure?

    It continuously health-checks endpoints and instantly reroutes traffic to the next-closest healthy endpoint/Region without requiring DNS changes (since the IPs are static).

AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate Networking & Content Delivery FAQ

What is in the AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate Networking & Content Delivery syllabus?

AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate Networking & Content Delivery is split into 3 chapters: Amazon VPC Core, VPC Connectivity & Hybrid Networking and DNS, Routing & Content Delivery. Together they contain 12 topics and 13 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate Networking & Content Delivery?

3 chapters, containing 12 topics and 13 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Amazon VPC Core, with 5 topics.

Are there flashcards for AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate Networking & Content Delivery?

Yes — a 60-card Networking & Content Delivery deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.