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ARB Registration (Architects Registration Board) Building Regulations, Statutory Control and Building Safety Syllabus

The Building Regulations, Statutory Control and Building Safety syllabus for ARB Registration (Architects Registration Board) in full: 4 chapters, 19 topics and 6 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 59 Building Regulations, Statutory Control and Building Safety flashcards with answers.

4Chapters
19Topics
6Sub-topics
59Flashcards

Building Regulations, Statutory Control and Building Safety syllabus: all 4 chapters

Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.

  1. The Planning System

    5 topics
    • Town and Country Planning framework
      • Development plans, NPPF and material considerations
      • Permitted development and the need for permission
    • Making and determining planning applications
    • Conservation areas, listed buildings and heritage assets
    • Planning conditions, obligations (s.106) and CIL
    • Appeals and enforcement
  2. Building Regulations and Approved Documents

    5 topics
    • The Building Regulations 2010 and approval routes
      • Building control bodies and registered building inspectors
      • Full plans, building notice and completion certificates
    • Approved Documents A-S and their scope
    • Fire safety: Approved Document B and means of escape
    • Accessibility: Approved Document M and inclusive design
    • Energy and overheating: Approved Documents L and O
  3. The Building Safety Act 2022 Regime

    5 topics
    • Higher-risk buildings and the gateway process
      • Gateways 1, 2 and 3 approvals
      • Definition and scope of higher-risk buildings
    • Dutyholders and competence requirements
    • The golden thread of information
    • The Building Safety Regulator and HSE role
    • Lessons from the Grenfell Inquiry and Hackitt Review
  4. Other Statutory and Site Obligations

    4 topics
    • CDM Regulations 2015 and the Principal Designer duty
    • Party Wall etc. Act 1996 procedures
    • Rights of light, boundaries and easements
    • Health and safety law on construction sites

ARB Registration (Architects Registration Board) Building Regulations, Statutory Control and Building Safety flashcards — 59 questions with answers

  1. What is the primary Act that established the modern Town and Country Planning system in England and Wales?

    The Town and Country Planning Act 1990 (TCPA 1990) is the principal Act consolidating planning law, supported by the Planning and Compulsory Purchase Act 2004 and the Planning Act 2008.

  2. What document sets out the government's overarching planning policies for England and how they should be applied?

    The National Planning Policy Framework (NPPF), which is supported by online Planning Practice Guidance (PPG). It carries a 'presumption in favour of sustainable development'.

  3. Define 'development' as set out in section 55 of the Town and Country Planning Act 1990.

    'The carrying out of building, engineering, mining or other operations in, on, over or under land, or the making of any material change in the use of any buildings or other land.'

  4. What is permitted development and where are the rights set out?

    Development that may be carried out without an express planning application because it is granted planning permission by the General Permitted Development Order (GPDO) 2015. Rights can be removed by an Article 4 Direction or planning conditions.

  5. What is the statutory determination period for a minor planning application versus a major application in England?

    8 weeks for minor/householder applications and 13 weeks for major applications (16 weeks where an Environmental Impact Assessment is required), unless an extension of time is agreed.

  6. What are the three main types of planning permission application?

    Outline planning permission (establishes principle, reserves matters), full (detailed) planning permission, and approval of reserved matters. Also householder applications for domestic works.

  7. What is meant by a 'material consideration' in determining a planning application?

    Any consideration genuinely connected to the use and development of land that is relevant to the planning merits — e.g. design, highways, amenity, the NPPF. Applications must be determined in accordance with the development plan unless material considerations indicate otherwise (s.38(6) PCPA 2004).

  8. What is the statutory definition of a listed building and who maintains the list?

    A building of special architectural or historic interest included on the list compiled by the Secretary of State (DCMS) under the Planning (Listed Buildings and Conservation Areas) Act 1990. Historic England advises and maintains the National Heritage List for England.

  9. What are the three grades of listed building in England and what do they signify?

    Grade I (exceptional interest, ~2.5% of listings), Grade II* (particularly important, more than special interest), and Grade II (special interest, the majority of listed buildings).

  10. What consent is required to demolish, alter or extend a listed building in a way that affects its character?

    Listed Building Consent (LBC). Carrying out such works without consent is a criminal offence under the Planning (Listed Buildings and Conservation Areas) Act 1990.

  11. What is a conservation area and what extra control applies within one?

    An area of special architectural or historic interest whose character or appearance it is desirable to preserve or enhance. Conservation area consent and stricter controls apply, including restrictions on demolition and the requirement for 6 weeks' notice before works to trees.

  12. Define a 'heritage asset' and distinguish designated from non-designated assets.

    A building, monument, site, place, area or landscape with heritage significance. Designated assets are statutorily protected (listed buildings, conservation areas, scheduled monuments, registered parks); non-designated assets are identified locally but lack statutory designation.

  13. What is the difference between a planning condition and a planning obligation?

    A planning condition is imposed unilaterally by the authority restricting/regulating development; a planning obligation (s.106 agreement) is a negotiated, binding contract requiring the developer to provide contributions or works (e.g. affordable housing).

  14. What are the six tests that a planning condition must satisfy per the NPPF?

    A condition must be: (1) necessary, (2) relevant to planning, (3) relevant to the development permitted, (4) enforceable, (5) precise, and (6) reasonable in all other respects.

  15. What is a Section 106 agreement (planning obligation) and under which Act is it made?

    A legally binding obligation under s.106 of the Town and Country Planning Act 1990 between a developer and local authority, used to make development acceptable (e.g. affordable housing, infrastructure contributions, restrictions on use).

  16. What is the Community Infrastructure Levy (CIL) and how does it differ from a s.106 obligation?

    CIL is a non-negotiable, standardised charge (£ per m² of new floorspace) levied by a charging authority to fund infrastructure. Unlike s.106, it is tariff-based, not negotiated, and applies generally rather than site-specifically.

  17. Within what period must an appeal against refusal of a householder planning application normally be lodged?

    Within 12 weeks of the decision for householder applications; 6 months for most other planning applications and refusals; appeals are made to the Planning Inspectorate.

  18. What are the three procedures by which a planning appeal can be determined?

    Written representations, an informal hearing, or a public inquiry. The Planning Inspectorate decides the procedure based on the complexity and issues raised.

  19. What is an enforcement notice and what is the usual immunity period for unauthorised operational development?

    A notice requiring breaches of planning control to be remedied. Under recent (LURA 2023) rules the immunity period is now 10 years for both operational development and change of use to a single dwellinghouse (previously 4 years for operations).

  20. What is a stop notice and how does it relate to an enforcement notice?

    A notice that prohibits a specified activity (a breach of planning control) from continuing; it must accompany or follow an enforcement notice and takes effect quickly to halt harmful activity pending compliance.

Show the other 39 Building Regulations, Statutory Control and Building Safety flashcards
  1. Under which legislation are the Building Regulations 2010 made, and what is their purpose?

    Made under the Building Act 1984. They set minimum standards for the design and construction of buildings to ensure health, safety, welfare, convenience, energy efficiency and sustainability of people in and around buildings.

  2. What are the two main routes for obtaining building control approval under the Building Regulations?

    (1) Full Plans application (plans checked before work) and (2) the Building Notice procedure (no detailed plans, suited to minor works). Note: as of the Building Safety Act, Approved Inspectors became 'Registered Building Control Approvers' and the private route is restricted for higher-risk buildings.

  3. What is the legal status of the Approved Documents relative to the Building Regulations?

    They provide practical guidance on ways to comply but are not mandatory — compliance can be achieved by other means. Following them creates a rebuttable presumption of compliance with the functional requirements.

  4. Match the Approved Document letters to their subject: A, B, C, K, M, P.

    A = Structure; B = Fire safety; C = Site preparation and resistance to contaminants and moisture; K = Protection from falling, collision and impact; M = Access to and use of buildings; P = Electrical safety.

  5. What do Approved Documents L and O cover respectively?

    Approved Document L = Conservation of fuel and power (energy efficiency); Approved Document O = Overheating mitigation in new residential buildings (introduced 2022).

  6. What is the most recently added Approved Document and what does it cover?

    Approved Document S = Infrastructure for the charging of electric vehicles (introduced June 2022). The series now runs A through S.

  7. Approved Document B is split into two volumes — what does each cover?

    Volume 1 covers dwellings; Volume 2 covers buildings other than dwellings. Both address means of warning and escape, internal/external fire spread, and access for the fire service.

  8. What is the maximum travel distance permitted in one direction (single direction of escape) typically allowed under Approved Document B for an office?

    Generally 18 m where travel is possible in only one direction, increasing to 45 m where alternative escape routes exist (figures vary by use/purpose group).

  9. Define 'means of escape' and the principle of 'protected route' in fire safety design.

    Means of escape is the structural means by which occupants can reach a place of safety unaided. A protected route (e.g. protected stairway) is enclosed in fire-resisting construction so it stays free of fire and smoke for the time needed to escape.

  10. Following the ban introduced after Grenfell, what restriction applies to combustible materials in external walls of certain high-rise buildings?

    Combustible materials are banned in the external walls of relevant buildings over 18 m (and now extended to 11 m for some uses) — materials must generally achieve European Class A2-s1,d0 or A1. Set out in Regulation 7(2) of the Building Regulations.

  11. What is the purpose of Approved Document M and what are its volume splits?

    Access to and use of buildings, ensuring inclusive access for all including disabled people. Volume 1 = dwellings (categories M4(1) visitable, M4(2) accessible/adaptable, M4(3) wheelchair user); Volume 2 = buildings other than dwellings.

  12. What is 'inclusive design' in the context of the built environment?

    Design that creates buildings and environments usable by everyone, regardless of age, disability or circumstance, without the need for special adaptation — removing barriers and providing choice rather than segregated provision.

  13. What overheating assessment methods does Approved Document O permit?

    Two methods: (1) the simplified method (limiting glazing areas and providing minimum free area for ventilation) and (2) the dynamic thermal modelling method following CIBSE TM59.

  14. What metric does Approved Document L use to set the energy/carbon performance target for new dwellings?

    Performance is assessed against Target Emission Rate (TER) and Target Fabric Energy Efficiency (TFEE), and now a Target Primary Energy Rate (TPER), calculated using SAP (Standard Assessment Procedure). The 2021 edition is an interim step to the Future Homes Standard.

  15. Define a 'higher-risk building' (HRB) under the Building Safety Act 2018 for the in-occupation regime.

    A building at least 18 m in height OR at least 7 storeys, containing at least 2 residential units (also includes hospitals and care homes during design/construction phase).

  16. What are the three 'Gateways' in the gateway process for higher-risk buildings?

    Gateway 1 (planning stage — fire safety considerations submitted with planning application); Gateway 2 (pre-construction — Building Safety Regulator approval before building work starts); Gateway 3 (completion — BSR approval before occupation, and registration).

  17. Who must approve building work at Gateways 2 and 3 for higher-risk buildings, and what is the consequence of these gateways?

    The Building Safety Regulator (BSR). They are 'hard stops' — work cannot start (Gateway 2) or the building cannot be occupied (Gateway 3) without BSR approval.

  18. Name the dutyholders defined under the Building Regulations (as aligned with CDM) for the design and construction of buildings.

    Client, Principal Designer, Principal Contractor, Designers, and Contractors. Each has defined duties to ensure compliance with building regulations and manage building safety risks.

  19. What is the 'competence' requirement introduced by the Building Safety Act for those working on buildings?

    Dutyholders must have the skills, knowledge, experience and behaviours (SKEB) — and organisations the capability — to carry out their roles. Competence frameworks (e.g. PAS 8671/8672) support this for designers and principal designers.

  20. What is the 'golden thread' of information under the Building Safety Act?

    The accurate, up-to-date digital record of information about a higher-risk building's design, construction and ongoing management — created at design, maintained through construction and occupation — ensuring the right people have the right information to keep the building safe.

  21. State three key principles the golden thread of information must satisfy.

    It must be digital, kept up to date (a single source of truth), accessible to those who need it, accurate, secure, and structured/standardised so information can be found and used to manage building safety.

  22. Who is the Building Safety Regulator and within which body does it sit?

    The Building Safety Regulator (BSR) is the national regulator for building safety and standards, established by the Building Safety Act 2022 and operating within the Health and Safety Executive (HSE).

  23. List the three main functions of the Building Safety Regulator.

    (1) Overseeing the safety and performance of all buildings (with special focus on higher-risk buildings), (2) raising the competence of those working on buildings, and (3) implementing the new regulatory regime for higher-risk buildings.

  24. What event prompted the Hackitt Review and the subsequent building safety reforms?

    The Grenfell Tower fire on 14 June 2017, which killed 72 people, exposed systemic failures and prompted Dame Judith Hackitt's Independent Review of Building Regulations and Fire Safety (2018).

  25. What was the central conclusion of the Hackitt Review 'Building a Safer Future' (2018)?

    That the regulatory system was 'not fit for purpose,' driven by a 'race to the bottom,' fragmented responsibility and weak enforcement. It recommended a new outcomes-based regulatory framework with clear dutyholders, the golden thread, and a single regulator.

  26. Name two key systemic failings identified by the Grenfell Tower Inquiry.

    Use of combustible ACM cladding and insulation that fuelled fire spread; a 'stay put' strategy that failed; inadequate testing/certification and product mis-selling; and fragmented, unclear responsibility across the design and construction supply chain.

  27. Under the CDM Regulations 2015, what does CDM stand for and what is the regulations' purpose?

    Construction (Design and Management) Regulations 2015 — they manage health, safety and welfare on construction projects from concept through to maintenance and demolition, ensuring risks are designed out and managed.

  28. What are the duties of the Principal Designer under CDM 2015?

    To plan, manage, monitor and coordinate health and safety during the pre-construction phase; identify, eliminate or control foreseeable risks; ensure designers comply; and prepare/provide pre-construction information and the health and safety file.

  29. How does the CDM 2015 Principal Designer differ from the Building Safety Act Principal Designer?

    The CDM Principal Designer manages health and safety in the pre-construction phase; the Building Safety Act Principal Designer is responsible for coordinating compliance with Building Regulations across the whole design. They are distinct legal roles that may be held by the same or different parties.

  30. When must the CDM 2015 client notify the HSE of a construction project (form F10)?

    When the construction work is scheduled to last longer than 30 working days and have more than 20 workers simultaneously at any point, OR exceeds 500 person-days.

  31. What does the Party Wall etc. Act 1996 regulate?

    Works to party walls, party structures, boundary walls, and excavations near neighbouring buildings. It provides a framework for preventing and resolving disputes between adjoining owners (it is not part of planning or building regulations).

  32. What notice periods are required under the Party Wall etc. Act 1996 for party structure work versus excavation/new walls?

    2 months' notice for works to an existing party structure (s.2); 1 month's notice for new walls at the boundary (s.1) and for adjacent excavation (s.6).

  33. What is a 'party wall award' and who prepares it?

    A legally binding document settling the rights and obligations of the parties, the works permitted, access, and cost allocation. It is prepared by the appointed party wall surveyor(s) when a dispute is deemed to have arisen (i.e. notice is not consented to).

  34. What is a right of light and how can it be acquired?

    An easement giving a landowner the right to receive natural light through defined apertures. It can be acquired by express grant, or by prescription after 20 years of uninterrupted enjoyment under the Prescription Act 1832.

  35. Define an 'easement' and give a common example relevant to property development.

    A right benefiting one parcel of land (dominant tenement) over another (servient tenement) without possessing it — e.g. a right of way, right of light, right of support, or right to run services/drainage.

  36. What is the difference between a boundary shown on a Land Registry title plan and a legal boundary?

    The Land Registry title plan shows only the 'general boundary' (an approximate line) and is not definitive; the exact legal boundary is determined by the deeds, physical features and, if disputed, by a determined boundary application or the courts.

  37. What is the primary legislation governing health and safety on construction sites, and who enforces it?

    The Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 (HSWA), enforced by the Health and Safety Executive (HSE). It places general duties on employers, employees and others to ensure health, safety and welfare 'so far as is reasonably practicable.'

  38. What does 'so far as is reasonably practicable' (SFAIRP / ALARP) mean in health and safety law?

    That the degree of risk must be balanced against the time, trouble, cost and physical difficulty of mitigating it; measures must be taken unless their cost is grossly disproportionate to the risk reduced. Risk is reduced to 'As Low As Reasonably Practicable.'

  39. What is a 'method statement' and a 'risk assessment' on a construction site, and which regulations require them?

    A risk assessment identifies hazards, who may be harmed and control measures (required by the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999); a method statement (RAMS) sets out the safe sequence of carrying out the work. Both underpin safe construction practice.

ARB Registration (Architects Registration Board) Building Regulations, Statutory Control and Building Safety FAQ

What is in the ARB Registration (Architects Registration Board) Building Regulations, Statutory Control and Building Safety syllabus?

ARB Registration (Architects Registration Board) Building Regulations, Statutory Control and Building Safety is split into 4 chapters: The Planning System, Building Regulations and Approved Documents, The Building Safety Act 2022 Regime and Other Statutory and Site Obligations. Together they contain 19 topics and 6 sub-topics.

How many chapters are in ARB Registration (Architects Registration Board) Building Regulations, Statutory Control and Building Safety?

4 chapters, containing 19 topics and 6 sub-topics. The largest chapter is The Planning System, with 5 topics.

Are there flashcards for ARB Registration (Architects Registration Board) Building Regulations, Statutory Control and Building Safety?

Yes — a 59-card Building Regulations, Statutory Control and Building Safety deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.