🇮🇳 AIIMS PG (DM/MCh) Entrance · subject
AIIMS PG (DM/MCh) Entrance Basic and Applied Sciences Syllabus
The Basic and Applied Sciences syllabus for AIIMS PG (DM/MCh) Entrance in full: 4 chapters, 15 topics and 30 sub-topics, every one listed below, plus 52 Basic and Applied Sciences flashcards with answers.
Basic and Applied Sciences syllabus: all 4 chapters
Expand any chapter to see its topics and sub-topics.
-
Human Anatomy
4 topics- Gross and Surgical Anatomy
- Thorax, abdomen and pelvis regional anatomy
- Neurovascular relations relevant to surgery
- Neuroanatomy
- Brain, brainstem and cranial nerves
- Spinal cord tracts and pathways
- Embryology and Developmental Anatomy
- Cardiovascular and GI development
- Common congenital anomalies
- Histology and Microanatomy
- Epithelial and connective tissues
- Organ-specific microstructure
- Gross and Surgical Anatomy
-
Physiology
4 topics- Cardiovascular Physiology
- Cardiac cycle and hemodynamics
- Regulation of blood pressure
- Respiratory Physiology
- Gas exchange and oxygen transport
- Ventilation-perfusion relationships
- Renal and Acid-Base Physiology
- Glomerular filtration and tubular function
- Acid-base regulation
- Neurophysiology and Endocrine Physiology
- Synaptic transmission and reflexes
- Hormonal feedback axes
- Cardiovascular Physiology
-
Biochemistry and Molecular Biology
3 topics- Metabolism
- Carbohydrate, lipid and protein metabolism
- Inborn errors of metabolism
- Molecular Genetics
- DNA replication, transcription and translation
- Mutations and gene regulation
- Enzymes and Clinical Biochemistry
- Enzyme kinetics and regulation
- Diagnostic biomarkers and laboratory tests
- Metabolism
-
Pharmacology
4 topics- Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics
- Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
- Dose-response and receptor theory
- Autonomic and Cardiovascular Drugs
- Adrenergic and cholinergic agents
- Antihypertensives and antiarrhythmics
- Chemotherapy and Antimicrobials
- Antibacterial, antiviral and antifungal agents
- Anticancer drugs and resistance
- Adverse Drug Reactions and Pharmacovigilance
- Drug interactions and toxicity
- Therapeutic drug monitoring
- Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics
AIIMS PG (DM/MCh) Entrance Basic and Applied Sciences flashcards — 52 questions with answers
What are the three branches of the celiac trunk?
Left gastric artery, splenic artery, and common hepatic artery.
Through which structure do the spinal nerve roots and dura form the boundary of the cervical sympathetic chain's relation? More specifically, what nerve is at risk during a thyroidectomy near the ligament of Berry?
The recurrent laryngeal nerve (branch of vagus), which runs in the tracheoesophageal groove close to the ligament of Berry.
What are the boundaries of the inguinal (Hesselbach's) triangle?
Medially the lateral border of rectus abdominis, laterally the inferior epigastric vessels, and inferiorly the inguinal ligament. Direct hernias protrude through it.
Which structures pass through the foramen ovale of the skull?
Mandibular nerve (V3), accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, and emissary veins (mnemonic: MALE).
In the brainstem, where do the corticospinal tract fibers decussate?
At the pyramidal decussation in the lower (caudal) medulla; about 85-90% of fibers cross to form the lateral corticospinal tract.
What is the blood supply to Broca's and Wernicke's areas, and what artery occlusion causes global aphasia?
Both are supplied by the middle cerebral artery (MCA); occlusion of the dominant MCA stem causes global aphasia.
Which thalamic nucleus relays visual information and which relays auditory information?
Lateral geniculate nucleus relays vision (to occipital cortex); medial geniculate nucleus relays hearing (to temporal cortex).
What is the lesion in Brown-Séquard syndrome and its classic findings?
Hemisection of the spinal cord: ipsilateral loss of motor, proprioception/vibration (dorsal column) below the lesion; contralateral loss of pain and temperature (spinothalamic) one to two segments below.
From which pharyngeal (branchial) arch do the muscles of mastication develop, and which nerve supplies them?
First pharyngeal arch; innervated by the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (V3).
What is the embryological origin of the thyroid gland and the path of the thyroglossal duct?
Thyroid arises from the foramen cecum at the base of the tongue and descends along the thyroglossal duct anterior to the hyoid bone; persistence causes a thyroglossal cyst.
Which aortic arch derivatives form the adult arteries? (3rd, 4th, 6th)
3rd arch: common carotid and proximal internal carotid; 4th arch: left = arch of aorta, right = proximal right subclavian; 6th arch: pulmonary arteries and (left) ductus arteriosus.
What is the developmental defect in a tracheoesophageal fistula with esophageal atresia (most common type)?
Proximal esophageal atresia with the distal esophagus connected to the trachea (Type C / Gross type C); presents with polyhydramnios, choking, and inability to pass an NG tube.
What type of epithelium lines the trachea and bronchi?
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells (respiratory epithelium).
What are the histological differences between cardiac and skeletal muscle?
Cardiac: branched cells, single central nucleus, intercalated discs, involuntary. Skeletal: cylindrical unbranched cells, multinucleated peripheral nuclei, no intercalated discs, voluntary.
State the formula for cardiac output and a typical resting value.
Cardiac output = Stroke volume × Heart rate; typically ~70 mL × 70/min ≈ 5 L/min.
Define ejection fraction and give its normal range.
Ejection fraction = Stroke volume / End-diastolic volume × 100; normal is ~55-70%.
What does the Frank-Starling law state?
Within physiological limits, the force of cardiac contraction (stroke volume) increases as the end-diastolic volume (preload/myocyte stretch) increases.
What ion movements produce phase 0 and phase 2 of the ventricular cardiac action potential?
Phase 0: rapid Na+ influx (depolarization); Phase 2 (plateau): Ca2+ influx through L-type channels balanced by K+ efflux.
Write the equation for mean arterial pressure (MAP).
MAP = Diastolic BP + 1/3 (Systolic - Diastolic) = DBP + 1/3 pulse pressure; or MAP = Cardiac output × Systemic vascular resistance.
What is functional residual capacity (FRC) and how is it composed?
FRC is the volume of air in the lungs after a normal expiration; FRC = Expiratory reserve volume + Residual volume (~2.3 L).
Show the other 32 Basic and Applied Sciences flashcards
State the alveolar gas equation for PAO2.
PAO2 = FiO2 × (Patm - PH2O) - PaCO2 / R; at sea level on room air ≈ 0.21 × (760 - 47) - PaCO2/0.8 ≈ 150 - PaCO2/0.8.
What is the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, and what factors shift it to the right?
Sigmoid curve of Hb saturation vs PO2. Right shift (decreased O2 affinity, easier unloading): increased CO2, H+ (low pH), temperature, and 2,3-BPG (Bohr effect).
In what three forms is CO2 transported in blood, and which is predominant?
As bicarbonate (~70%, predominant), bound to hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin (~23%), and dissolved in plasma (~7%).
Write the equation for glomerular filtration rate (GFR) using clearance.
GFR = (Urine concentration × Urine flow rate) / Plasma concentration = (U × V) / P; inulin or creatinine clearance is used to estimate it.
Where does the majority of filtered sodium and water get reabsorbed in the nephron?
The proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs about 65-70% of filtered Na+, water, and most glucose, amino acids, and bicarbonate.
State the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation for the bicarbonate buffer system.
pH = 6.1 + log([HCO3-] / (0.03 × PaCO2)); normal pH 7.4 with HCO3- ~24 mEq/L and PaCO2 ~40 mmHg.
How do you calculate the anion gap and what is its normal value?
Anion gap = Na+ - (Cl- + HCO3-); normal is ~8-12 mEq/L. An elevated gap indicates added unmeasured anions (e.g., lactate, ketones).
What is Winter's formula for expected PaCO2 compensation in metabolic acidosis?
Expected PaCO2 = (1.5 × HCO3-) + 8 ± 2.
What neurotransmitter and receptor mediate the resting membrane potential restoration, and what is the typical neuronal resting membrane potential?
The Na+/K+-ATPase maintains gradients; resting membrane potential is about -70 mV, closest to the K+ equilibrium potential.
Which hypothalamic hormones control anterior pituitary secretion of growth hormone?
GHRH (growth hormone-releasing hormone) stimulates and somatostatin (GHIH) inhibits GH release.
What are the two hormones released by the posterior pituitary and where are they synthesized?
Oxytocin and ADH (vasopressin); both are synthesized in the hypothalamus (supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei) and stored/released from the posterior pituitary.
What is the difference between saltatory and continuous conduction?
Saltatory conduction occurs in myelinated axons where the action potential jumps node to node (nodes of Ranvier), making it fast; continuous conduction occurs in unmyelinated fibers and is slower.
What is the net ATP yield of complete aerobic oxidation of one glucose molecule (commonly cited)?
Approximately 30-32 ATP (older texts: 36-38), via glycolysis, the TCA cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation.
Which enzyme is the rate-limiting (committed) step of glycolysis and how is it regulated?
Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1); activated by AMP and fructose-2,6-bisphosphate, inhibited by ATP and citrate.
What is the rate-limiting enzyme of cholesterol synthesis and the target of statins?
HMG-CoA reductase, which converts HMG-CoA to mevalonate; inhibited competitively by statins.
What is the Cori cycle?
Lactate produced by anaerobic glycolysis in muscle is transported to the liver and converted back to glucose via gluconeogenesis, then returned to muscle.
Distinguish transcription, translation, and replication in molecular genetics.
Replication: DNA → DNA (DNA polymerase). Transcription: DNA → mRNA (RNA polymerase). Translation: mRNA → protein (ribosomes).
What is the difference between a missense, nonsense, and silent mutation?
Missense: codon change yields a different amino acid. Nonsense: codon change yields a premature stop codon. Silent: codon change codes the same amino acid (no effect).
What is the principle of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), and the three steps per cycle?
PCR amplifies DNA in vitro. Steps: denaturation (~95°C), annealing of primers (~50-65°C), and extension by Taq polymerase (~72°C).
Define enzyme Km and Vmax in Michaelis-Menten kinetics.
Vmax is the maximal reaction velocity at saturating substrate. Km is the substrate concentration at half Vmax; a low Km indicates high substrate affinity.
How do competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors affect Km and Vmax?
Competitive: increases Km, Vmax unchanged. Noncompetitive: Km unchanged, decreases Vmax.
Which cardiac biomarker is most specific for myocardial infarction and what is its time course?
Cardiac troponin (cTnI/cTnT); rises within 3-6 hours, peaks at ~24 hours, and remains elevated for 7-10 days.
Define zero-order and first-order pharmacokinetics.
First-order: a constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time (rate proportional to concentration). Zero-order: a constant amount is eliminated per unit time (saturated enzymes), e.g., ethanol, phenytoin at high doses.
Write the formula for volume of distribution (Vd).
Vd = Total amount of drug in the body / Plasma drug concentration; a high Vd indicates extensive tissue distribution.
Define the loading dose and maintenance dose formulas.
Loading dose = (Target plasma concentration × Vd) / bioavailability (F). Maintenance dose rate = (Target concentration × Clearance) / F.
Differentiate a drug's potency from its efficacy.
Potency is the amount of drug needed to produce an effect (related to EC50, position on dose-response curve). Efficacy is the maximal effect achievable (Emax/ceiling), regardless of dose.
What is the difference between a competitive antagonist and a noncompetitive (irreversible) antagonist on the agonist dose-response curve?
Competitive antagonist: shifts curve right (decreased potency), Emax preserved, surmountable. Noncompetitive antagonist: lowers Emax (decreased efficacy), not surmountable.
Which adrenergic receptors mediate vasoconstriction, increased heart rate, and bronchodilation respectively?
Alpha-1: vasoconstriction; Beta-1: increased heart rate/contractility; Beta-2: bronchodilation and vasodilation.
What is the mechanism and main use of atropine?
A competitive muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist; used to treat symptomatic bradycardia and organophosphate (cholinergic) poisoning, and to reduce secretions.
Which antibiotics inhibit the bacterial 30S vs the 50S ribosomal subunit?
30S: aminoglycosides and tetracyclines. 50S: macrolides, clindamycin, chloramphenicol, linezolid, and streptogramins.
What is the mechanism of beta-lactam antibiotics, and the main resistance mechanism?
They inhibit cell wall synthesis by binding penicillin-binding proteins (transpeptidases); resistance is chiefly via bacterial beta-lactamase (penicillinase) enzymes.
What is a Type A versus a Type B adverse drug reaction?
Type A (Augmented): dose-dependent, predictable, related to pharmacology, common (e.g., bleeding with warfarin). Type B (Bizarre): dose-independent, unpredictable, idiosyncratic/immunologic, rarer (e.g., anaphylaxis).
AIIMS PG (DM/MCh) Entrance Basic and Applied Sciences FAQ
What is in the AIIMS PG (DM/MCh) Entrance Basic and Applied Sciences syllabus?
AIIMS PG (DM/MCh) Entrance Basic and Applied Sciences is split into 4 chapters: Human Anatomy, Physiology, Biochemistry and Molecular Biology and Pharmacology. Together they contain 15 topics and 30 sub-topics.
How many chapters are in AIIMS PG (DM/MCh) Entrance Basic and Applied Sciences?
4 chapters, containing 15 topics and 30 sub-topics. The largest chapter is Human Anatomy, with 4 topics.
Are there flashcards for AIIMS PG (DM/MCh) Entrance Basic and Applied Sciences?
Yes — a 52-card Basic and Applied Sciences deck, printed in full in the flashcards section of this page and available in the Examius app with spaced repetition. The free plan covers one exam of your choice, including its flashcards; Examius Pro, a one-time purchase, unlocks every other exam and deck.